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Exam (elaborations)

APEA 3P Exam Test Bank Overview Actual Questions And Answers Pass At First Attempt

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Visual acuity test - correct answer 20/30 in the left eye and 20/40 in the right eye using the Snellen eye chart indicates the need for further evaluation. Munchausen Syndrome By Proxy - correct answer A caregiver making up or causing an illness or injury in a person under his or her care. Symptoms of depression - correct answer Side effect of medications such as serotonin and norepinephrine. Lesion characteristics - correct answer A dark raised and asymmetric lesion with irregular border is indicative of melanoma. Puffiness of the eyes - correct answer Dull puffiness of the eyes pronounced not pitting periorbital edema suggests nephrotic syndrome. Prophylactic medication for migraines - correct answer Amitriptyline (Elavil) is considered off-label use for prophylactic treatment of migraines. Scaling on the scalp - correct answer Areas of scaling on the scalp with round patches of alopecia are consistent with tinea capitis. Combined hormonal contraceptive contraindications - correct answer Contraindicated in women older than 45, breastfeeding, smoking, hypertension, diabetes, or history of stroke. Bloody nipple discharge - correct answer Bloody spontaneous discharge from the right nipple indicates the need for further evaluation. Rho (D) immunoglobulin administration - correct answer Rh negative women should receive Rho (D) immunoglobulin at 28 weeks' gestation. Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) - correct answer MCV describes the size of the RBCs; small-sized RBCs result in a lower MCV, while larger RBCs result in a higher MCV. Avoided medication for headache prophylaxis - correct answer Venlafaxine (Effexor) should be avoided due to serious side effects. Prostaglandin E1 (PG1) mechanism - correct answer Maintains patency of the great arteries in a patient with transposition of the great arteries. Calf pain in peripheral artery disease - correct answer A dull pain or cramp describes lower extremity calf pain associated with peripheral artery disease. Hyperprolactinemia symptoms - correct answer Typical symptoms include infertility, oligomenorrhea, or amenorrhea in premenopausal women. Asthma treatment - correct answer Short-acting bronchodilators are used to relieve acute wheezing in asthma patients. Shingles vaccine - correct answer The shingles (herpes zoster) vaccine reduces the risk for infection with the virus that causes painful localized blistering rash. Short-Acting Beta Agonist (SABA) - correct answer Inhalers for acute asthma attacks, quickly relieve constriction. Albuterol - correct answer Common SABA, brand name Ventolin. Levalbuterol - correct answer SABA, brand name Xopenex, less side effects. Pirbuterol - correct answer SABA, brand name Maxair, used for asthma. Terbutaline - correct answer SABA, brand name Brethine, relaxes airway muscles. Metaproterenol - correct answer SABA, brand name Alupent, bronchodilator. Varicella vaccine - correct answer Protects against chickenpox and shingles. Shingles (herpes zoster) - correct answer Painful rash from dormant varicella zoster virus. Munchausen syndrome by proxy - correct answer Caregiver induces illness in someone else for attention. Gravida - correct answer Number of pregnancies a woman has had. Para - correct answer Number of pregnancies resulting in viable offspring. TPAL system - correct answer Tracks pregnancies: Term, Preterm, Abortions, Living children. Epitrochlear lymph node - correct answer Lymph node in the elbow region, assesses infection. Anticholinergics - correct answer Drugs blocking acetylcholine, treat urinary incontinence. Heart failure - correct answer Condition with decreased cardiac output, causes congestion. Jugular venous distention - correct answer Sign of heart failure, indicates fluid overload. Gastroesophageal reflux (GERD) - correct answer Condition with heartburn and regurgitation symptoms. Peripheral artery disease - correct answer Causes leg pain during activity, known as claudication. Papilledema - correct answer Swelling of optic disc due to increased pressure. Cullen's sign - correct answer Bruising around umbilicus, indicates hemorrhagic conditions. Gray Turner's sign - correct answer Bruising on flanks, suggests retroperitoneal hemorrhage. Hiatal hernia - correct answer Stomach bulges through diaphragm, causes GERD symptoms. Keloid - correct answer Raised scar from excessive collagen formation. Cutaneous cyst - correct answer Benign closed sac in skin, may contain fluid. Chondrodermatitis - correct answer Painful skin condition, often on ear or nose. Iron deficiency anemia - correct answer Low iron levels causing fatigue and weakness. Valsalva maneuver - correct answer Forces air against closed airway, can trigger headaches. Urge incontinence - correct answer Sudden urge to urinate, often treated with anticholinergics. Thin vaginal mucosa - correct answer Indicates atrophic vaginitis, often post-menopause. Absence of rugae - correct answer Sign of estrogen deficiency in women. Friable cervix - correct answer Easily irritated tissue, prone to bleeding. Raised cervical lesion - correct answer Could indicate abnormal growth, requires evaluation. Nabothian cysts - correct answer Benign, common cysts on the cervix. Atrophic vaginitis - correct answer Vaginal disorder with thinning after menopause. First line therapy for OA - correct answer NSAIDs at lowest effective dose recommended. Weight loss impact - correct answer 10 pounds lost reduces knee OA risk by 50%. Osteosarcoma symptoms - correct answer Commonly presents with bone pain and tenderness. Migraine characteristics - correct answer Family history is a common factor. Small bowel obstruction symptoms - correct answer Includes vomiting, pain, and abdominal distension. Unilateral rhinitis causes - correct answer Foreign body or nasal polyp may be responsible. Acute sinusitis treatment to avoid - correct answer Antihistamines should be avoided in children. Acromegaly features - correct answer Elongated head with prominent facial bones. Deferoxamine use - correct answer Eliminates excess iron in beta thalassemia. TSH levels in hypothyroidism - correct answer Expected to be higher than normal. Secondary syphilis symptoms - correct answer Rash with red lesions on palms and soles. Prostatic hypertrophy risks - correct answer Increases risk of UTIs and acute urinary retention. Primary syphilis lesion - correct answer Typically presents as a painless chancre. Gout treatment to avoid - correct answer Allopurinol should not be prescribed during attacks. Essential vitamins for women - correct answer Folic Acid and Iron are crucial in multivitamins. Bacterial meningitis headaches - correct answer Caused by increased intracranial pressure. Janeway lesions - correct answer Associated with infective endocarditis. Aminoglycosides - correct answer Class of antibiotics that can cause hearing loss. Methyldopa in pregnancy - correct answer First choice antihypertensive for pregnant women. Hemorrhagic vesiculopustular lesions - correct answer May indicate a sexually transmitted infection. Sumatriptan (Imitrex) - correct answer Used to treat migraines but not for prophylactic treatment.

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Uploaded on
August 8, 2025
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Minnesota Exam- Interests in Real
Property

what is needed if the owner of a homestead property is married - correct answer signatures from
both spouses are required to convey the homestead



who can each spouse appoint to convey property owned separately from the other spouse - correct
answer attorney-in-fact



what happens to a property that spouses own separately - correct answer can be conveyed without
the other spouse's signature



what happens to a homestead property that spouses own separately - correct answer REQUIRES
both spouses signatures



what are the 3 types of ownerships in MN - correct answer estate in severalty



joint tenancy



tenancy in common



what can co-owners convey in terms of their interest in property - correct answer they can convey all
or a portion of their interest in property separately from the other owners



EXCEPTIONS are for homesteads



what kind of state in MN in terms of marriage - correct answer an equitable distribution state



property is divided "fairly" by the court

, who can offer or sell subdivided land - correct answer only Real Estate licensees



what is subdivided land - correct answer real estate that is divided or is planned for division and then
sold or leased



this includes both improved and unimproved land



timeshares are also included



what is a timeshare - correct answer the right to occupy real property during intermittent intervals
(at least 3 separate time periods) over at least a 3-year period



what is a person classified as - correct answer an individual, corporation, government agency or
division, biz trust, estate, partnership, etc.



does subdivided land have to be registered with the state before any sales happen - correct answer
yes



what are the 2 ways subdivision can be registered - correct answer notification (100 or fewer
potential lots or sales)



qualification (more than 100 lots or sales)



what is a public offering statement - correct answer it discloses everything a purchaser needs to
know about the subdivided land



must be delivered to the purchaser either before or when a written offer is made or when payment of a
sale is made (whichever comes first)



how many days so purchasers have from the date they receive a copy of the sales contract and public
offering statement to rescind the contract - correct answer 5 days

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