1
2025 ATI RN Pharmacology
Proctored Exam – 80 Authentic NGN
Questions with Drug Class Focus,
100% Verified Answers & Clinical
Rationales | A+ Graded
Student Name: _________________________
Date: _______________
Time Limit: 120 minutes
Total Questions: 95
Instructions
• This exam contains 95 questions, including multiple-choice and select-all-that-apply
(SATA) formats, covering drug classifications, side effects, and safe administration.
• Read each question carefully and select the best answer(s) as indicated.
• For SATA questions, select all correct options.
• Time limit: 120 minutes.
• No external resources are permitted during the exam.
• A minimum score of 75% is required to pass, aligning with ATI RN standards.
Analgesics and Pain Management
1. A client is prescribed morphine sulfate for postoperative pain. What is the nurse’s priority
assessment before administration?
A. Blood glucose level
B. Respiratory rate
C. Temperature
D. Urine output
Rationale: Morphine, an opioid analgesic, can cause respiratory depression; assessing
respiratory rate ensures safety, per 2025 CDC opioid guidelines.
2. (SATA) Which side effects should the nurse monitor for in a client receiving oxycodone?
(Select all that apply)
A. Constipation
, 2
B. Sedation
C. Hypertension
D. Respiratory depression
E. Increased appetite
Rationale: Oxycodone, an opioid, causes constipation, sedation, and respiratory
depression; hypertension and increased appetite are not typical, per ATI Pharmacology.
3. A client with severe pain receives ketorolac. What is the maximum duration of therapy?
A. 3 days
B. 5 days
C. 7 days
D. 10 days
Rationale: Ketorolac, an NSAID, is limited to 5 days due to risks of renal and
gastrointestinal toxicity, per FDA guidelines.
4. A client is prescribed acetaminophen 650 mg every 4 hours. What is the maximum daily
dose to prevent toxicity?
A. 2,000 mg
B. 4,000 mg
C. 6,000 mg
D. 8,000 mg
Rationale: Acetaminophen’s maximum daily dose is 4,000 mg in adults to prevent
hepatotoxicity, per 2025 FDA guidelines.
5. A client receiving tramadol reports nausea. What is the nurse’s first action?
A. Discontinue the medication
B. Administer an antiemetic as prescribed
C. Increase the dose
D. Document as normal
Rationale: Nausea is a common side effect of tramadol; an antiemetic manages
symptoms without stopping therapy, per ATI.
Antibiotics
6. A client is prescribed amoxicillin for a urinary tract infection. What should the nurse
teach the client?
A. Take with grapefruit juice
B. Complete the full course of therapy
C. Stop if symptoms resolve
D. Avoid dairy products
Rationale: Completing the full course of amoxicillin prevents antibiotic resistance, per
CDC guidelines.
7. (SATA) Which assessments are priority before administering vancomycin IV? (Select all
that apply)
A. Renal function
B. Hearing status
C. Blood glucose
D. Infusion site
, 3
E. Temperature
Rationale: Vancomycin can cause nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity, and infusion reactions;
renal function, hearing, and infusion site must be monitored, per 2025 FDA guidelines.
8. A client receiving gentamicin develops tinnitus. What is the nurse’s priority action?
A. Continue the medication
B. Notify the provider
C. Administer an antihistamine
D. Document as normal
Rationale: Tinnitus indicates potential ototoxicity from gentamicin, requiring provider
notification, per ATI.
9. A client is prescribed doxycycline. What should the nurse include in discharge teaching?
A. Take with milk to enhance absorption
B. Avoid sun exposure
C. Take on an empty stomach only
D. Stop if fever resolves
Rationale: Doxycycline, a tetracycline, causes photosensitivity; avoiding sun exposure
prevents burns, per FDA.
10. A client with a penicillin allergy is prescribed azithromycin. What is the drug class?
A. Cephalosporin
B. Macrolide
C. Fluoroquinolone
D. Sulfonamide
Rationale: Azithromycin is a macrolide antibiotic, safe for penicillin-allergic clients, per
ATI Pharmacology.
Antihypertensives
11. A client is prescribed lisinopril. What is the nurse’s priority assessment?
A. Blood glucose
B. Blood pressure
C. Respiratory rate
D. Temperature
Rationale: Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, lowers blood pressure; monitoring BP ensures
efficacy and safety, per JNC 8.
12. (SATA) Which side effects should the nurse monitor for in a client receiving metoprolol?
(Select all that apply)
A. Bradycardia
B. Hypotension
C. Hyperglycemia
D. Fatigue
E. Increased appetite
Rationale: Metoprolol, a beta-blocker, causes bradycardia, hypotension, and fatigue;
hyperglycemia and increased appetite are not typical, per ATI.
13. A client receiving hydrochlorothiazide reports muscle cramps. What should the nurse
suspect?
2025 ATI RN Pharmacology
Proctored Exam – 80 Authentic NGN
Questions with Drug Class Focus,
100% Verified Answers & Clinical
Rationales | A+ Graded
Student Name: _________________________
Date: _______________
Time Limit: 120 minutes
Total Questions: 95
Instructions
• This exam contains 95 questions, including multiple-choice and select-all-that-apply
(SATA) formats, covering drug classifications, side effects, and safe administration.
• Read each question carefully and select the best answer(s) as indicated.
• For SATA questions, select all correct options.
• Time limit: 120 minutes.
• No external resources are permitted during the exam.
• A minimum score of 75% is required to pass, aligning with ATI RN standards.
Analgesics and Pain Management
1. A client is prescribed morphine sulfate for postoperative pain. What is the nurse’s priority
assessment before administration?
A. Blood glucose level
B. Respiratory rate
C. Temperature
D. Urine output
Rationale: Morphine, an opioid analgesic, can cause respiratory depression; assessing
respiratory rate ensures safety, per 2025 CDC opioid guidelines.
2. (SATA) Which side effects should the nurse monitor for in a client receiving oxycodone?
(Select all that apply)
A. Constipation
, 2
B. Sedation
C. Hypertension
D. Respiratory depression
E. Increased appetite
Rationale: Oxycodone, an opioid, causes constipation, sedation, and respiratory
depression; hypertension and increased appetite are not typical, per ATI Pharmacology.
3. A client with severe pain receives ketorolac. What is the maximum duration of therapy?
A. 3 days
B. 5 days
C. 7 days
D. 10 days
Rationale: Ketorolac, an NSAID, is limited to 5 days due to risks of renal and
gastrointestinal toxicity, per FDA guidelines.
4. A client is prescribed acetaminophen 650 mg every 4 hours. What is the maximum daily
dose to prevent toxicity?
A. 2,000 mg
B. 4,000 mg
C. 6,000 mg
D. 8,000 mg
Rationale: Acetaminophen’s maximum daily dose is 4,000 mg in adults to prevent
hepatotoxicity, per 2025 FDA guidelines.
5. A client receiving tramadol reports nausea. What is the nurse’s first action?
A. Discontinue the medication
B. Administer an antiemetic as prescribed
C. Increase the dose
D. Document as normal
Rationale: Nausea is a common side effect of tramadol; an antiemetic manages
symptoms without stopping therapy, per ATI.
Antibiotics
6. A client is prescribed amoxicillin for a urinary tract infection. What should the nurse
teach the client?
A. Take with grapefruit juice
B. Complete the full course of therapy
C. Stop if symptoms resolve
D. Avoid dairy products
Rationale: Completing the full course of amoxicillin prevents antibiotic resistance, per
CDC guidelines.
7. (SATA) Which assessments are priority before administering vancomycin IV? (Select all
that apply)
A. Renal function
B. Hearing status
C. Blood glucose
D. Infusion site
, 3
E. Temperature
Rationale: Vancomycin can cause nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity, and infusion reactions;
renal function, hearing, and infusion site must be monitored, per 2025 FDA guidelines.
8. A client receiving gentamicin develops tinnitus. What is the nurse’s priority action?
A. Continue the medication
B. Notify the provider
C. Administer an antihistamine
D. Document as normal
Rationale: Tinnitus indicates potential ototoxicity from gentamicin, requiring provider
notification, per ATI.
9. A client is prescribed doxycycline. What should the nurse include in discharge teaching?
A. Take with milk to enhance absorption
B. Avoid sun exposure
C. Take on an empty stomach only
D. Stop if fever resolves
Rationale: Doxycycline, a tetracycline, causes photosensitivity; avoiding sun exposure
prevents burns, per FDA.
10. A client with a penicillin allergy is prescribed azithromycin. What is the drug class?
A. Cephalosporin
B. Macrolide
C. Fluoroquinolone
D. Sulfonamide
Rationale: Azithromycin is a macrolide antibiotic, safe for penicillin-allergic clients, per
ATI Pharmacology.
Antihypertensives
11. A client is prescribed lisinopril. What is the nurse’s priority assessment?
A. Blood glucose
B. Blood pressure
C. Respiratory rate
D. Temperature
Rationale: Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, lowers blood pressure; monitoring BP ensures
efficacy and safety, per JNC 8.
12. (SATA) Which side effects should the nurse monitor for in a client receiving metoprolol?
(Select all that apply)
A. Bradycardia
B. Hypotension
C. Hyperglycemia
D. Fatigue
E. Increased appetite
Rationale: Metoprolol, a beta-blocker, causes bradycardia, hypotension, and fatigue;
hyperglycemia and increased appetite are not typical, per ATI.
13. A client receiving hydrochlorothiazide reports muscle cramps. What should the nurse
suspect?
