DHL INTERVIEW ATPL MOST TESTED QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS GRADED A+ WITH RATIONALES
1.
What is the standard VOR changeover distance from the station in terminal procedures?
A. 30 NM
B. 60 NM ✅
C. 90 NM
D. 120 NM
Rationale: A 60 NM changeover point ensures reliable VOR reception as you transition between
stations.
2.
What is the minimum centerline separation required for parallel runways?
A. 610 m
B. 760 m
C. 915 m ✅
D. 1200 m
Rationale: ICAO and many national regs mandate at least 915 m to prevent wake turbulence and allow
independent operation.
3.
When using Mode 2 (converging localizers) for parallel runway approaches, which is NOT a required
condition?
A. Only straight-in approaches allowed
B. Localizer interception < 30°
C. Must be offset by exactly 15° ✅
D. Missed approach tracks diverge ≥ 30°
Rationale: Offset 15° is arbitrary; the actual criteria are straight-in, ≤ 30° intercept, 1 NM localizer/2 NM
glideslope capture, and track divergence.
4.
,ESTUDYR
What is the minimum advance filing time for a domestic IFR flight plan?
A. 15 minutes
B. 30 minutes
C. 60 minutes ✅
D. 120 minutes
Rationale: Most ATC facilities require an IFR flight plan at least 60 min before departure unless using
ATC direct.
5.
A slip is created by:
A. Excessive rudder in turn direction
B. Opposite rudder to the turn with bank ✅
C. Neutral rudder and bank
D. Nose-high attitude
Rationale: Slip uses opposite rudder to increase descent rate; the ball moves to inside of turn.
6.
A skid occurs when:
A. Too little rudder in turn
B. Too much rudder in turn direction ✅
C. Wing too high
D. Airspeed below stall speed
Rationale: Over-ruddering pushes the ball to the outside of the turn, indicating a skid and risk of
overbanking.
7.
ATC clocks displayed in the tower must agree within:
A. 5 s
B. 30 s ✅
C. 60 s
D. 120 s
Rationale: Synchronization to within 30 s ensures accurate coordination and separation timing.
,ESTUDYR
8.
In Class A airspace, the separation rules are:
A. IFR separated from VFR
B. IFR only (no VFR allowed) ✅
C. VFR only
D. Mixed flights allowed
Rationale: Class A is IFR-only from FL180 to FL600 in most regions.
9.
Class B separation requires ATC to separate:
A. IFR from IFR only
B. IFR and VFR from all others ✅
C. VFR only
D. No separation
Rationale: In Class B, IFR/IFR, IFR/VFR, and VFR/VFR (with traffic info) are controlled.
10.
Class C separation rules include:
A. No VFR permitted
B. IFR from IFR, IFR from VFR; VFR traffic advisories ✅
C. Uncontrolled operations
D. Military only
Rationale: Class C provides separation for IFR and traffic information to VFR.
11.
Class D separation requires:
A. Full IFR/VFR separation
B. IFR from IFR; only traffic info for VFR ✅
C. No ATC services
D. Higher minima than Class C
Rationale: Class D separates only IFR traffic; VFR pilots get traffic advisories on request.
, ESTUDYR
12.
The key difference for VFR between Class D and Class E is:
A. Altitude limits
B. No ATC clearance required in E ✅
C. Speed limits differ
D. Weather minima
Rationale: Class E allows VFR without ATC clearance; SVFR is only in controlled airspace.
13.
“Load shedding” in aircraft electrical systems means:
A. Offloading passengers
B. Turning off nonessential electrical components ✅
C. Lowering landing gear
D. Reducing fuel flow
Rationale: Shedding noncritical loads preserves essential bus power during overload.
14.
An artificial feel unit in a control system must be wired:
A. In series with the actuator
B. In parallel with the control circuit ✅
C. To the landing gear
D. Through the battery
Rationale: Parallel connection ensures feel unit failure doesn’t disable control surfaces.
15.
Booster fuel pumps are:
A. High-pressure piston pumps
B. Low-pressure centrifugal pumps feeding engine-driven pumps ✅
C. Gravity feed pumps
D. Chemical pumps
Rationale: Booster pumps maintain supply pressure to prevent cavitation in main pumps.