NCLEX PN Final Actual Exam Test
Bank
NCLEX PN Final Actual Exam Test Bank
2025/2026 /PN NCLEX EXIT Newest
2025/2026 Complete All 700
Questions And Correct Detailed
Answers With Rationales (Verified
Answers) |Already Graded A+||Brand
New
The primary HCP prescribed phenytoin 100 mg PO q.i.d. for the client. Prior to administering
the second dose, the LPN observes that the client appears lethargic and has nystagmus and
slurred speech. In addition to notifying the supervising RN, the LPN should do which of the
following?
a) Administer phenytoin to prevent and impending seizure
b) Administer the phenytoin to prevent cardiac arrhythmia
c) Withhold phenytoin due to signs of an allergic reaction
d) Withhold the phenytoin because client show signs of toxicity - Answer ✓✓d
Explanation: Lethargy, nystagmus, and slurred speech suggests phenytoin toxicity. This drug
should be withheld.
TEST BANK A+ 1
, NCLEX PN Final Actual Exam Test
Bank
The LPN is reviewing medication information with a female client who has been prescribed
sertraline daily. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further
instructions?
a) "I will continue to take my birth control pills"
b) "If these pills don't work in 2 weeks. I will stop taking them"
c) "I will take my pill first thing in the morning"
d) "I will skip a missed dose if it is almost time for my next one" - Answer ✓✓b
Explanation: Sertraline may take 4 weeks to have a positive effect on the client's symptoms;
the client should not stop taking the medication without consulting with the primary HCP. It is
important to take this medication at the same time each day but not necessarily in the
morning. A missed dose of Sertraline should be omitted if it is almost time for the next dose.
It can cause birth defects if taken during pregnancy; the client should continue taking
contraceptives.
Within 5 minutes of beginning a blood transfusion, the client reports feeling hot and
diaphoretic, and the LPN observes that the client appears flushed. Which of the following
actions should the nurse take first?
a) Notify primary HCP
b) Stop blood transfusion immediately
c) Increase normal saline solution drip rate
d) Obtain the client's vital signs immediately - Answer ✓✓b
Explanation: Discontinue immediately to avoid the risk of kidney damage resulting from the
possible red blood cell destruction. The primary HCP can be notified after the correct actions
have taken place. Vitals should be taken after stopping the transfusion.
TEST BANK A+ 2
, NCLEX PN Final Actual Exam Test
Bank
The client comes to the urgent care clinic reporting "I've just stepped on a rusty nail at a
construction site." The LPN observes a deep puncture wound on the sole of the right foot.
What order would the nurse expect to receive from the primary HCP for this client?
a) Complete blood count
b) Wound culture
c) Tetanus vaccine
d) Lumbar puncture - Answer ✓✓c
Explanation: A deep puncture wound provides an ideal reservoir for the growth of Clostridium
tetani (common in soils, dust, and feces and on human skin). To prevent tetanus, a potentially
fatal bacterial infection, the primary HCP would order the tetanus vaccine.
A CBC is not necessary because the client has not suffered a significant amount of blood loss.
Wound culture is not necessary for a new wound. Lumbar punctures withdraw spinal fluid
from the spinal column to identify conditions of the brain or spine, not to manage a puncture
wound in the foot.
An hour after admission to the nursery, the LPN observes a newborn having spontaneous,
jerky limb movements. The newborn's mother had gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM)
during pregnancy. Which of the following actions should the LPN take first?
a) Administer dextrose water
b) Call the primary HCP immediately
c) Determine the blood glucose level
d) Observe the newborn for associated symptoms - Answer ✓✓c
Explanation: You must complete data collection before you implement nursing care.
TEST BANK A+ 3
, NCLEX PN Final Actual Exam Test
Bank
A client is admitted to the hospital with a ruptured ectopic pregnancy . A laparotomy is
scheduled. Preoperatively, which of the following interventions is most important for the LPN
to include on the client's plan of care?
a) Fluid replacement
b) Therapeutic communication
c) Emotional support
d) Oxygen therapy - Answer ✓✓a
Explanation: An ectopic pregnancy is implantation of the fertilized ovum in a site other than
the endometrial lining, usually the fallopian tube. Initially the pregnancy is normal but as the
embryo outgrows the fallopian tube, the tube ruptures, causing extensive bleeding into the
abdominal cavity.
The LPN is implementing care for an adolescent client diagnosed with anorexia nervosa. On
admission, the girl weighs 82 lbs. and is 5'4" tall. Laboratory results indicate severe
hypokalemia, anemia, and dehydration. The LPN should give which of the following nursing
diagnosis is the highest priority?
a) Body image disturbance related to weight loss
b) Self-esteem disturbance related to feelings of inadequacy
c) Impaired nutrition: less than body requirements related to decreased intake
d) Deficient cardiac output related to the potential for dysrhythmias - Answer ✓✓d
Explanation: Because the question asks for highest priority we can eliminate psychosocial
answers. Physiological answers are higher priority. This leaves answers c and d. Dysrhythmias
are a concern for a client with hypokalemia, which often occurs with anorexia nervosa.
Deficient cardiac output is a higher priority than altered nutrition.
TEST BANK A+ 4
Bank
NCLEX PN Final Actual Exam Test Bank
2025/2026 /PN NCLEX EXIT Newest
2025/2026 Complete All 700
Questions And Correct Detailed
Answers With Rationales (Verified
Answers) |Already Graded A+||Brand
New
The primary HCP prescribed phenytoin 100 mg PO q.i.d. for the client. Prior to administering
the second dose, the LPN observes that the client appears lethargic and has nystagmus and
slurred speech. In addition to notifying the supervising RN, the LPN should do which of the
following?
a) Administer phenytoin to prevent and impending seizure
b) Administer the phenytoin to prevent cardiac arrhythmia
c) Withhold phenytoin due to signs of an allergic reaction
d) Withhold the phenytoin because client show signs of toxicity - Answer ✓✓d
Explanation: Lethargy, nystagmus, and slurred speech suggests phenytoin toxicity. This drug
should be withheld.
TEST BANK A+ 1
, NCLEX PN Final Actual Exam Test
Bank
The LPN is reviewing medication information with a female client who has been prescribed
sertraline daily. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further
instructions?
a) "I will continue to take my birth control pills"
b) "If these pills don't work in 2 weeks. I will stop taking them"
c) "I will take my pill first thing in the morning"
d) "I will skip a missed dose if it is almost time for my next one" - Answer ✓✓b
Explanation: Sertraline may take 4 weeks to have a positive effect on the client's symptoms;
the client should not stop taking the medication without consulting with the primary HCP. It is
important to take this medication at the same time each day but not necessarily in the
morning. A missed dose of Sertraline should be omitted if it is almost time for the next dose.
It can cause birth defects if taken during pregnancy; the client should continue taking
contraceptives.
Within 5 minutes of beginning a blood transfusion, the client reports feeling hot and
diaphoretic, and the LPN observes that the client appears flushed. Which of the following
actions should the nurse take first?
a) Notify primary HCP
b) Stop blood transfusion immediately
c) Increase normal saline solution drip rate
d) Obtain the client's vital signs immediately - Answer ✓✓b
Explanation: Discontinue immediately to avoid the risk of kidney damage resulting from the
possible red blood cell destruction. The primary HCP can be notified after the correct actions
have taken place. Vitals should be taken after stopping the transfusion.
TEST BANK A+ 2
, NCLEX PN Final Actual Exam Test
Bank
The client comes to the urgent care clinic reporting "I've just stepped on a rusty nail at a
construction site." The LPN observes a deep puncture wound on the sole of the right foot.
What order would the nurse expect to receive from the primary HCP for this client?
a) Complete blood count
b) Wound culture
c) Tetanus vaccine
d) Lumbar puncture - Answer ✓✓c
Explanation: A deep puncture wound provides an ideal reservoir for the growth of Clostridium
tetani (common in soils, dust, and feces and on human skin). To prevent tetanus, a potentially
fatal bacterial infection, the primary HCP would order the tetanus vaccine.
A CBC is not necessary because the client has not suffered a significant amount of blood loss.
Wound culture is not necessary for a new wound. Lumbar punctures withdraw spinal fluid
from the spinal column to identify conditions of the brain or spine, not to manage a puncture
wound in the foot.
An hour after admission to the nursery, the LPN observes a newborn having spontaneous,
jerky limb movements. The newborn's mother had gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM)
during pregnancy. Which of the following actions should the LPN take first?
a) Administer dextrose water
b) Call the primary HCP immediately
c) Determine the blood glucose level
d) Observe the newborn for associated symptoms - Answer ✓✓c
Explanation: You must complete data collection before you implement nursing care.
TEST BANK A+ 3
, NCLEX PN Final Actual Exam Test
Bank
A client is admitted to the hospital with a ruptured ectopic pregnancy . A laparotomy is
scheduled. Preoperatively, which of the following interventions is most important for the LPN
to include on the client's plan of care?
a) Fluid replacement
b) Therapeutic communication
c) Emotional support
d) Oxygen therapy - Answer ✓✓a
Explanation: An ectopic pregnancy is implantation of the fertilized ovum in a site other than
the endometrial lining, usually the fallopian tube. Initially the pregnancy is normal but as the
embryo outgrows the fallopian tube, the tube ruptures, causing extensive bleeding into the
abdominal cavity.
The LPN is implementing care for an adolescent client diagnosed with anorexia nervosa. On
admission, the girl weighs 82 lbs. and is 5'4" tall. Laboratory results indicate severe
hypokalemia, anemia, and dehydration. The LPN should give which of the following nursing
diagnosis is the highest priority?
a) Body image disturbance related to weight loss
b) Self-esteem disturbance related to feelings of inadequacy
c) Impaired nutrition: less than body requirements related to decreased intake
d) Deficient cardiac output related to the potential for dysrhythmias - Answer ✓✓d
Explanation: Because the question asks for highest priority we can eliminate psychosocial
answers. Physiological answers are higher priority. This leaves answers c and d. Dysrhythmias
are a concern for a client with hypokalemia, which often occurs with anorexia nervosa.
Deficient cardiac output is a higher priority than altered nutrition.
TEST BANK A+ 4
