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Exam (elaborations)

ATI Pharmacology Practice Questions 2025 | NCLEX-RN/PN Prep with Rationales

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Get ready for your ATI Pharmacology Exam with this 2025-aligned practice question set, crafted for RN and PN students. Covers essential meds, NCLEX-style questions, and includes rationales, safety alerts, and nursing priorities.

Institution
Pharmacology
Module
Pharmacology








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Institution
Pharmacology
Module
Pharmacology

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Uploaded on
August 3, 2025
Number of pages
3
Written in
2025/2026
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Exam (elaborations)
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lOMoARcPSD|44532475




Risk for osteoporosis with extended use of PPI (esomeprazole)

Theophylline is a bronchodilator, which affects smooth muscle relaxation and leads to opened
airways. (dilates bronchioles)

The greatest risk to the client is injury from seizures and falls. Grand mal seizures can occur during
severe alcohol withdrawal. Therefore, the nurse's priority is to implement seizure precautions to
reduce the risk of injury if the client experiences a seizure. (implement seizure precautions with a pt
going through acute alcohol withdrawal)

Clients taking metformin should monitor for manifestations of lactic acidosis such as muscle pain,
hyperventilation, and dizziness. Lactic acidosis is a severe adverse effect of metformin that the nurse
should report to the provider immediately.

Tachycardia is a manifestation of hyperthyroidism. The nurse should identify that a pulse of 82/min is
within the expected reference range of 60 to 100/min, indicating that the medication is effective.
(Propylthiouracil for Graves’ disease)

Magnesium sulfate depresses neuromuscular activity, causing muscle weakness and paralysis.
Therefore, the nurse should identify hyporeflexia as an indication of magnesium toxicity and report it
to the charge nurse.

The client should receive acyclovir, an antiviral medication, to treat genital herpes by reducing
manifestations and the rate of viral shedding.

The nurse should identify that eplerenone can place the client at risk for increased potassium levels
because eplerenone can cause potassium retention. (hyperkalemia)

The client should rinse mouth after using inhaled glucocorticoids to reduce the risk for developing oral
thrush.

The nurse should reinforce with the client to increase dietary intake of potassium because furosemide
causes potassium to be excreted in the urine. Increasing dietary potassium will help prevent
hypokalemia.

The nurse should identify that methimazole inhibits the synthesis of thyroid hormone, reducing levels
to provide a euthyroid state. Therefore, a decreased level of T4 is an indication of a therapeutic effect.
(for hyperthyroidism)

Zidovudine can cause severe anemia and neutropenia. The client should have blood tests performed
before treatment begins and have continued monitoring during the course of treatment.

The nurse should monitor the client for diarrhea, which is an adverse effect of antibiotics, such as
amoxicillin.

The nurse should instruct the client to reduce or avoid all use of alcohol because isoniazid can cause
liver damage. Therefore, it is important for the nurse to determine the client's daily alcohol intake.
Isoniazid does not cause red-orange colored urine. Rifampin is a medication used to treat tuberculosis
and causes the client's sweat, urine, saliva, and tears to appear red-orange in color.

The nurse should identify that a hypersensitivity reaction to either gelatin or neomycin is a
contraindication for receiving the varicella vaccine because it contains both of these substances.

Clients who have a musculoskeletal injury benefit from using ibuprofen, an NSAID, in conjunction with
an opioid analgesic.




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