AANP Exam Version 1 Actual Exam
AANP Exam Version 1 Actual Exam
Newest 2025/2026 Complete All
Questions And Correct Detailed
Answers (Verified Answers) |Already
Graded A+||Brand New Version
A high-school wrestler has been diagnosed with infectious mononucleosis. When
can the patient resume participation in the sport?
A.2 weeks following onset
B.3 weeks following onset
C.4 weeks following onset
D.Never - Answer ✓✓Answer: C. 4 weeks following onset
Infectious mononucleosis presents the risk for splenic rupture. Patients who
participate in strenuous contact sports are advised to refrain from participation
for at least 4 weeks following onset of illness. Athletes who participate in
noncontact sports are advised to wait at least 3 weeks. Although most acute
symptoms resolve within the first 2 weeks, the risk for splenic rupture may remain
elevated for several days beyond that.
An older adult patient was burned when a large pot of boiling water fell off the
stove. According to the Lund-Browder chart, the patient has reddened skin and
several bullae on approximately 4% of the abdominal area. The patient is allergic
to sulfa products. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate?
A.Treat with benzocaine spray.
B.Gently rupture blisters.
C.Treat with silver sulfadiazine.
TEST BANK A+ 1
, AANP Exam Version 1 Actual Exam
D.Treat with bacitracin zinc. - Answer ✓✓Answer: D. Treat with bacitracin zinc.
The patient has a partial-thickness (second-degree) burn because the patient is
older than 50 years and the total body surface area (TBSA) burned is <5%. The
treatment is bacitracin zinc and nonadherent dressings. Silver sulfadiazine cream
should be avoided because of the patient's allergy to sulfa products. Benzocaine
spray or aloe vera gel is the treatment for superficial-thickness (first-degree)
burns. Blisters should not be ruptured because it may increase the risk of
infection, especially in elderly patients.
Which of the following is recommended on an annual basis for an elderly patient
with type 2 diabetes?
A.Eye exam with an ophthalmologist
B.Follow-up visit with a urologist
C.Periodic visits to an optometrist
D.Colonoscopy - Answer ✓✓Answer: A. Eye exam with an ophthalmologist
Elderly patients with type 2 diabetes should have a dilated eye exam done
annually by an ophthalmologist. They should also see a podiatrist once or twice a
year. A diabetes diagnosis does not necessitate routine visits to the urologist or an
optometrist, nor does it influence the schedule for colonoscopy.
A 65-year-old male patient who works as a carpenter complains of morning
stiffness and pain in both his hands and his right knee upon awakening. He feels
some relief after warming up. On exam, the nurse practitioner notices the
presence of Heberden nodes. Which of the following is most likely?
A.Osteoporosis
B.Rheumatoid arthritis
C.Osteoarthritis
D.Reiter syndrom - Answer ✓✓Answer: C. Osteoarthritis
Signs of osteoarthritis include stiffness of joints, especially in the morning and
after sitting for long periods. Visible signs of osteoarthritis are an element in the
TEST BANK A+ 2
, AANP Exam Version 1 Actual Exam
diagnosis. Heberden nodes (bony overgrowths) are classic signs of osteoarthritis.
They are located at the distal interphalangeal joints. They are felt as hard,
nontender nodules that are usually 2 to 3 cm in diameter but sometimes
encompass the entire joint. Enlargement of the middle joint of a finger is called a
Bouchard node. Rheumatoid arthritis differs in that deformities of the hands and
fingers form, and the stiffness of the joints after rest is generally persistent for
several hours. Osteoporosis does not commonly cause hand pain or stiffness, but
when symptomatic it generally causes loss of height and vertebral pain. It does not
cause Heberden nodes. Reiter syndrome is a reactive arthritis that presents in
response to arthritis in other areas of the body and generally causes symptoms in
the knees and feet more commonly than in the hands. It does not produce
Heberden nodes.
Which of the following is considered an objective finding in patients who have a
case of suppurative otitis media?
A.Pale tympanic membrane
B.Increased mobility of the tympanic membrane as measured by tympanogram
C.Rinne test showing AC >BC
D.Bulging of the tympanic membrane - Answer ✓✓Answer: D. Bulging of the
tympanic membrane
Acute suppurative otitis media is an acute infection affecting the mucosal lining of
the middle ear and the mastoid air system. In the suppurative stage, the tympanic
membrane bulges and ruptures spontaneously through a small perforation in the
pars tensa. Ear discharge is usually present. Diagnosis is usually made simply by
looking at the eardrum through an otoscope. The eardrum will appear red and
swollen, and may appear either abnormally drawn inward or bulging outward.
Using the tympanogram with the otoscope allows a puff of air to be blown lightly
into the ear. Normally, this should cause movement of the eardrum. In an
infection, or when there is fluid behind the eardrum, this movement may be
decreased or absent. Conductive hearing loss may be present as evidenced by
bone conduction (BC) exceeding air conduction (AC).
A 13-year-old female patient presents with complaints of right lower abdominal
pain that began 4 hours ago in volleyball practice. The nurse practitioner assesses
TEST BANK A+ 3
, AANP Exam Version 1 Actual Exam
rebound tenderness at McBurney's point. What does this assessment finding
indicate?
A.Crohn disease
B.Ulcerative colitis
C.Appendicitis
D.Diverticulitis - Answer ✓✓Answer: C. Appendicitis
In up to 50% of presenting cases of appendicitis, local tenderness is elicited at
McBurney's point when pressure is applied. Rebound tenderness (i.e., production
or intensification of pain when pressure is released) may be present and is
considered a positive diagnostic sign. Crohn disease is characterized by bloody
diarrhea along with right lower quadrant pain. Ulcerative colitis affects the colon
and is characterized by bloody diarrhea with mucus, along with left-sided
abdominal pain. Diverticulitis is characterized by pain that may be constant and
may persist for several days. The lower left quadrant of the abdomen is the usual
site of the pain. Signs and symptoms include nausea and vomiting, fever, and
abdominal tenderness.
Which medication will the nurse practitioner include in the treatment plan for a 7-
year-old child with acute otitis media?
A.Cefdinir
B.Amoxicillin-clavulanate
C.Erythromycin
D.Azithromycin - Answer ✓✓Answer: B. Amoxicillin-clavulanate
Amoxicillin-clavulanate is the first line of therapy for the treatment of acute otitis
media. A second-generation cephalosporin such as cefdinir may be used in patients
with a pencillin allergy. Erythromycin is not prescribed as the first line of
treatment for acute otitis media. Azithromycin can be administered as the first
line of treatment for acute otitis media if amoxicillin is contraindicated.
A 67-year-old female patient who regularly takes diphenhydramine (Benadryl) as a
sleep aid is at risk of which of the following conditions?
TEST BANK A+ 4
AANP Exam Version 1 Actual Exam
Newest 2025/2026 Complete All
Questions And Correct Detailed
Answers (Verified Answers) |Already
Graded A+||Brand New Version
A high-school wrestler has been diagnosed with infectious mononucleosis. When
can the patient resume participation in the sport?
A.2 weeks following onset
B.3 weeks following onset
C.4 weeks following onset
D.Never - Answer ✓✓Answer: C. 4 weeks following onset
Infectious mononucleosis presents the risk for splenic rupture. Patients who
participate in strenuous contact sports are advised to refrain from participation
for at least 4 weeks following onset of illness. Athletes who participate in
noncontact sports are advised to wait at least 3 weeks. Although most acute
symptoms resolve within the first 2 weeks, the risk for splenic rupture may remain
elevated for several days beyond that.
An older adult patient was burned when a large pot of boiling water fell off the
stove. According to the Lund-Browder chart, the patient has reddened skin and
several bullae on approximately 4% of the abdominal area. The patient is allergic
to sulfa products. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate?
A.Treat with benzocaine spray.
B.Gently rupture blisters.
C.Treat with silver sulfadiazine.
TEST BANK A+ 1
, AANP Exam Version 1 Actual Exam
D.Treat with bacitracin zinc. - Answer ✓✓Answer: D. Treat with bacitracin zinc.
The patient has a partial-thickness (second-degree) burn because the patient is
older than 50 years and the total body surface area (TBSA) burned is <5%. The
treatment is bacitracin zinc and nonadherent dressings. Silver sulfadiazine cream
should be avoided because of the patient's allergy to sulfa products. Benzocaine
spray or aloe vera gel is the treatment for superficial-thickness (first-degree)
burns. Blisters should not be ruptured because it may increase the risk of
infection, especially in elderly patients.
Which of the following is recommended on an annual basis for an elderly patient
with type 2 diabetes?
A.Eye exam with an ophthalmologist
B.Follow-up visit with a urologist
C.Periodic visits to an optometrist
D.Colonoscopy - Answer ✓✓Answer: A. Eye exam with an ophthalmologist
Elderly patients with type 2 diabetes should have a dilated eye exam done
annually by an ophthalmologist. They should also see a podiatrist once or twice a
year. A diabetes diagnosis does not necessitate routine visits to the urologist or an
optometrist, nor does it influence the schedule for colonoscopy.
A 65-year-old male patient who works as a carpenter complains of morning
stiffness and pain in both his hands and his right knee upon awakening. He feels
some relief after warming up. On exam, the nurse practitioner notices the
presence of Heberden nodes. Which of the following is most likely?
A.Osteoporosis
B.Rheumatoid arthritis
C.Osteoarthritis
D.Reiter syndrom - Answer ✓✓Answer: C. Osteoarthritis
Signs of osteoarthritis include stiffness of joints, especially in the morning and
after sitting for long periods. Visible signs of osteoarthritis are an element in the
TEST BANK A+ 2
, AANP Exam Version 1 Actual Exam
diagnosis. Heberden nodes (bony overgrowths) are classic signs of osteoarthritis.
They are located at the distal interphalangeal joints. They are felt as hard,
nontender nodules that are usually 2 to 3 cm in diameter but sometimes
encompass the entire joint. Enlargement of the middle joint of a finger is called a
Bouchard node. Rheumatoid arthritis differs in that deformities of the hands and
fingers form, and the stiffness of the joints after rest is generally persistent for
several hours. Osteoporosis does not commonly cause hand pain or stiffness, but
when symptomatic it generally causes loss of height and vertebral pain. It does not
cause Heberden nodes. Reiter syndrome is a reactive arthritis that presents in
response to arthritis in other areas of the body and generally causes symptoms in
the knees and feet more commonly than in the hands. It does not produce
Heberden nodes.
Which of the following is considered an objective finding in patients who have a
case of suppurative otitis media?
A.Pale tympanic membrane
B.Increased mobility of the tympanic membrane as measured by tympanogram
C.Rinne test showing AC >BC
D.Bulging of the tympanic membrane - Answer ✓✓Answer: D. Bulging of the
tympanic membrane
Acute suppurative otitis media is an acute infection affecting the mucosal lining of
the middle ear and the mastoid air system. In the suppurative stage, the tympanic
membrane bulges and ruptures spontaneously through a small perforation in the
pars tensa. Ear discharge is usually present. Diagnosis is usually made simply by
looking at the eardrum through an otoscope. The eardrum will appear red and
swollen, and may appear either abnormally drawn inward or bulging outward.
Using the tympanogram with the otoscope allows a puff of air to be blown lightly
into the ear. Normally, this should cause movement of the eardrum. In an
infection, or when there is fluid behind the eardrum, this movement may be
decreased or absent. Conductive hearing loss may be present as evidenced by
bone conduction (BC) exceeding air conduction (AC).
A 13-year-old female patient presents with complaints of right lower abdominal
pain that began 4 hours ago in volleyball practice. The nurse practitioner assesses
TEST BANK A+ 3
, AANP Exam Version 1 Actual Exam
rebound tenderness at McBurney's point. What does this assessment finding
indicate?
A.Crohn disease
B.Ulcerative colitis
C.Appendicitis
D.Diverticulitis - Answer ✓✓Answer: C. Appendicitis
In up to 50% of presenting cases of appendicitis, local tenderness is elicited at
McBurney's point when pressure is applied. Rebound tenderness (i.e., production
or intensification of pain when pressure is released) may be present and is
considered a positive diagnostic sign. Crohn disease is characterized by bloody
diarrhea along with right lower quadrant pain. Ulcerative colitis affects the colon
and is characterized by bloody diarrhea with mucus, along with left-sided
abdominal pain. Diverticulitis is characterized by pain that may be constant and
may persist for several days. The lower left quadrant of the abdomen is the usual
site of the pain. Signs and symptoms include nausea and vomiting, fever, and
abdominal tenderness.
Which medication will the nurse practitioner include in the treatment plan for a 7-
year-old child with acute otitis media?
A.Cefdinir
B.Amoxicillin-clavulanate
C.Erythromycin
D.Azithromycin - Answer ✓✓Answer: B. Amoxicillin-clavulanate
Amoxicillin-clavulanate is the first line of therapy for the treatment of acute otitis
media. A second-generation cephalosporin such as cefdinir may be used in patients
with a pencillin allergy. Erythromycin is not prescribed as the first line of
treatment for acute otitis media. Azithromycin can be administered as the first
line of treatment for acute otitis media if amoxicillin is contraindicated.
A 67-year-old female patient who regularly takes diphenhydramine (Benadryl) as a
sleep aid is at risk of which of the following conditions?
TEST BANK A+ 4
