ESTUDYR
NUR 6111 EXAM 1 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
| 2025 UPDATE | 100% CORRECT
1. What is the normal serum sodium (Na⁺) range?
A. 125–135 mEq/L
B. 135–145 mEq/L
C. 140–150 mEq/L
D. 120–130 mEq/L
Rationale: Normal sodium is 135–145 mEq/L, crucial for fluid balance and nerve conduction.
2. Which of the following potassium (K⁺) levels is abnormal?
A. 4.2 mEq/L
B. 3.8 mEq/L
C. 5.5 mEq/L
D. 4.5 mEq/L
Rationale: Normal K⁺ is 3.5–5.0 mEq/L; 5.5 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, risk for arrhythmias.
3. A patient with hypomagnesemia may present with:
A. Bradycardia
B. Hyperreflexia
C. Muscle cramps and numbness/tingling
D. Polyuria
Rationale: Low Mg (normal 1.3–2.1 mEq/L) → neuromuscular irritability (cramps, paresthesia).
4. The body’s primary acid–base buffer system is:
A. Phosphate
B. Protein
C. Carbonic acid–bicarbonate
D. Sulfate
Rationale: The carbonic acid–bicarbonate system in blood rapidly neutralizes pH shifts.
,ESTUDYR
5. In an ABG with pH 7.30, PaCO₂ 50 mm Hg, HCO₃⁻ 26 mEq/L, the primary disturbance is:
A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis
Rationale: pH ↓ and PaCO₂ ↑ indicate respiratory acidosis; HCO₃⁻ is normal.
6. Which immunoglobulin provides mucosal immunity?
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgA
D. IgE
Rationale: IgA is secreted on mucosal surfaces to block pathogens from entering circulation.
7. A deficiency of IgA can cause which transfusion reaction risk?
A. Hemolysis
B. Anaphylaxis
C. Febrile reaction
D. Hypotension only
Rationale: IgA-deficient patients may have anti-IgA antibodies → anaphylactic reaction to donor IgA.
8. Which is an autosomal recessive disorder?
A. Huntington’s disease
B. Achondroplasia
C. Cystic fibrosis
D. Neurofibromatosis
Rationale: Cystic fibrosis requires two mutant alleles (recessive inheritance).
9. Which describes autosomal dominant inheritance?
, ESTUDYR
A. Two mutant genes required
B. One mutant gene sufficient
C. Only affects males
D. Only maternal transmission
Rationale: A single mutant allele causes trait expression in autosomal dominant disorders.
10. The hallmark of Type I hypersensitivity is:
A. Immune complex deposition
B. T-cell–mediated damage
C. IgE-mediated mast cell degranulation
D. Complement activation on RBCs
Rationale: Type I (e.g., peanut allergy) is immediate and IgE-driven.
11. In prematurity, a neonate is defined as born before:
A. 28 weeks
B. 37 weeks
C. 32 weeks
D. 34 weeks
Rationale: Preterm is < 37 weeks gestation, with risks of RDS, NEC, etc.
12. Respiratory distress syndrome in preemies is due to:
A. Cardiac shunting
B. Upper airway obstruction
C. Surfactant deficiency
D. Meconium aspiration
Rationale: Lack of surfactant → atelectasis, grunting, tachypnea in infants < 28 weeks.
13. Necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC) typically presents with:
A. Respiratory distress
B. Seizures
NUR 6111 EXAM 1 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
| 2025 UPDATE | 100% CORRECT
1. What is the normal serum sodium (Na⁺) range?
A. 125–135 mEq/L
B. 135–145 mEq/L
C. 140–150 mEq/L
D. 120–130 mEq/L
Rationale: Normal sodium is 135–145 mEq/L, crucial for fluid balance and nerve conduction.
2. Which of the following potassium (K⁺) levels is abnormal?
A. 4.2 mEq/L
B. 3.8 mEq/L
C. 5.5 mEq/L
D. 4.5 mEq/L
Rationale: Normal K⁺ is 3.5–5.0 mEq/L; 5.5 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, risk for arrhythmias.
3. A patient with hypomagnesemia may present with:
A. Bradycardia
B. Hyperreflexia
C. Muscle cramps and numbness/tingling
D. Polyuria
Rationale: Low Mg (normal 1.3–2.1 mEq/L) → neuromuscular irritability (cramps, paresthesia).
4. The body’s primary acid–base buffer system is:
A. Phosphate
B. Protein
C. Carbonic acid–bicarbonate
D. Sulfate
Rationale: The carbonic acid–bicarbonate system in blood rapidly neutralizes pH shifts.
,ESTUDYR
5. In an ABG with pH 7.30, PaCO₂ 50 mm Hg, HCO₃⁻ 26 mEq/L, the primary disturbance is:
A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis
Rationale: pH ↓ and PaCO₂ ↑ indicate respiratory acidosis; HCO₃⁻ is normal.
6. Which immunoglobulin provides mucosal immunity?
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgA
D. IgE
Rationale: IgA is secreted on mucosal surfaces to block pathogens from entering circulation.
7. A deficiency of IgA can cause which transfusion reaction risk?
A. Hemolysis
B. Anaphylaxis
C. Febrile reaction
D. Hypotension only
Rationale: IgA-deficient patients may have anti-IgA antibodies → anaphylactic reaction to donor IgA.
8. Which is an autosomal recessive disorder?
A. Huntington’s disease
B. Achondroplasia
C. Cystic fibrosis
D. Neurofibromatosis
Rationale: Cystic fibrosis requires two mutant alleles (recessive inheritance).
9. Which describes autosomal dominant inheritance?
, ESTUDYR
A. Two mutant genes required
B. One mutant gene sufficient
C. Only affects males
D. Only maternal transmission
Rationale: A single mutant allele causes trait expression in autosomal dominant disorders.
10. The hallmark of Type I hypersensitivity is:
A. Immune complex deposition
B. T-cell–mediated damage
C. IgE-mediated mast cell degranulation
D. Complement activation on RBCs
Rationale: Type I (e.g., peanut allergy) is immediate and IgE-driven.
11. In prematurity, a neonate is defined as born before:
A. 28 weeks
B. 37 weeks
C. 32 weeks
D. 34 weeks
Rationale: Preterm is < 37 weeks gestation, with risks of RDS, NEC, etc.
12. Respiratory distress syndrome in preemies is due to:
A. Cardiac shunting
B. Upper airway obstruction
C. Surfactant deficiency
D. Meconium aspiration
Rationale: Lack of surfactant → atelectasis, grunting, tachypnea in infants < 28 weeks.
13. Necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC) typically presents with:
A. Respiratory distress
B. Seizures
