Nightingale College Pathophysiology Midterm EXAM STUDY GUIDE 2025/2026 COMPLETE QUESTIONS BANK AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES || 100% GUARANTEED PASS RECENT VERSION

Nightingale College Pathophysiology Midterm EXAM STUDY GUIDE 2025/2026 COMPLETE QUESTIONS BANK AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES || 100% GUARANTEED PASS RECENT VERSION 1. Pathophysiology - ANSWER The study of the underlying changes in body physiology (molecular, cellular, and organ systems) that result from disease or injury. 2. Pathology - ANSWER The investigation of structural alterations in cells, tissues, and organs, which can help identify the cause of a particular disease. 3. Diagnosis - ANSWER The naming or identification of a disease - is made from an evaluation of the evidence accumulated from the presenting signs and symptoms, health and medical history, physical examination, laboratory tests, and imaging. 4. Etiology - ANSWER The study of the CAUSE of disease 5. Epidemiology - ANSWER The study of tracking patterns or disease occurrence and transmission among populations and by geographic areas 6. Describe the outcomes of the various alterations in arousals - ANSWER - Brain death (total brain death): When the brain is damaged so completely that it can never recover (irreversible) and cannot maintain the body's internal homeostasis. - Cerebral death (irreversible coma): Death of the cerebral hemispheres exclusive of the brainstem and cerebellum. Brain damage is permanent, and the individual is forever unable to respond behaviorally in any significant way to the environment. - Persistent vegetative state: Complete unawareness of the self or surrounding environment and complete loss of cognitive function. Recovery is unlikely if the state persists for 12 months. - Minimally conscious state (MCS, minimally preserved consciousness): May follow simple commands, manipulate or reach for objects, gesture or give yes/no responses, have intelligible speech, and have movements such as blinking or smiling. Individuals may remain permanently in this state or progress to minimal ability to understand and communicate. - Locked-in syndrome: Complete paralysis of voluntary muscles with the exception of eye movement. 7. Differentiate between decorticate and decerebrate posture/responses - ANSWER - Decorticate Posturing/rigidity: upper extremity flexion, lower extremity extension Response: Slowly developing flexion of arm, wrist, and fingers with adduction in the upper extremity and extension, internal rotation, and plantar flexion of lower extremity - Decerebrate Posturing/rigidity: upper and lower extremity extensor responses Response: Opisthotonos (hyperextension of vertebral column) with clenching of teeth; extension, abduction, and hyperpronation of arms; and extension of lower extremities. In acute brain injury, shivering and hyperpnea may accompany unelicited recurrent decerebrate spasms 8. Identify the major characteristics of disorders of expression - ANSWER - Hypermimesis: commonly manifests as pathologic laughter or crying. Pathologic laughter is associated with right hemisphere injury, and pathologic crying is associated with left hemisphere injury. - Hypomimesis: manifests as aprosody—the loss of emotional language. Receptive aprosody involves an inability to understand emotion in speech and facial expression. Expressive aprosody involves the inability to express emotion in speech and facial expression. Aprosody is associated with right hemisphere damage. - Apraxia/dyspraxia: A disorder of learned skilled movements with difficulty planning and executing coordinated motor movements. The term is often used interchangeably with dyspraxia. It can be developmental, beginning at birth (developmental apraxia), or associated with vascular disorders (common in stroke), trauma, tumors, degenerative disorders, infections, or metabolic disorders. 9. Risk factors for cerebrovascular disease (CVD) - ANSWER • Poorly controlled or uncontrolled arterial hypertension • Smoking, which increases the risk of stroke by 2 to 4 times • Insulin resistance and diabetes mellitus • Atrial fibrillation • Polycythemia (excess red blood cells) and thrombocythemia (excess platelets) • High total cholesterol or low high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol, elevated lipoprotein-a • Congestive heart disease and peripheral vascular disease • Hyperhomocysteinemia • Sickle cell disease • Postmenopausal hormone therapy • High sodium intake 2300 mg; low potassium intake 4700 mg • Obesity • Sleep apnea • Depression • Chlamydia pneumoniae infection • Physical inactivity • Family history of ischemic stroke 10. Clinical manifestations of multiple sclerosis - ANSWER Paresthesias of the face, trunk, or limbs; weakness; impaired gait; or urinary incontinence, indicating diffuse CNS involvement. Visual impairment is associated with optic neuritis. Cerebellar and corticospinal involvement presents as nystagmus, ataxia, and weakness, with all four limbs involved. Intention tremor and slurred speech may also occur. 11. Cystic fibrosis - ANSWER The nurse is caring for a patient with a genetic disease that is transmitted through autosomal recessive inheritance. Which is the most likely diagnoses for this patient? 12. Protect cells from injury - ANSWER Adaptive cellular mechanisms function to: 13. Brain - ANSWER If a patient has liquefactive necrosis, which organ should the nurse asses first? 14. Huntington's disease - ANSWER The nurse in the genetics clinic is describing a genetic disease that leads to progressive dementia in the middle to later adulthood. To which disease is the nurse most likely referring? 15. Codon - ANSWER The triplet of base pairs necessary to code for a specific amino acid is called a: 16. Phenotype - ANSWER The outward manifestation of a disease, often influenced by both genes and the environment, is called the disease: 17. A "monosomy" - ANSWER The condition that occurs when a zygote is missing in each cell is referred to as: 18. Transcription - ANSWER The process by which RNA is formed from DNA for protein synthesis as: 19. The nurse remembers the elderly are at higher risk for developing dehydration because - ANSWER Decreased muscle mass 20. 70 YO pt w/ chronic renal failure presents with edema. Which is most likely the cause of? - ANSWER Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure 21. A nurse is teaching about antidiuretic hormone. Which information should the nurse include ? - ANSWER Increased plasma osmolality 22. Which organ system should the nurse monitor when the pt has LT potassium deficits ? - ANSWER Kidneys 23. 5 YO male presents to the ER w/ delirium and sunken eyes, ex with severe dehydration. The nurse administers hypertonic IV solution. What should be expected ? - ANSWER Intracellular dehydration 24. Which pt should the nurse assess for both hyperkalemia and metabolic acidosis - ANSWER Renal failure 25. A 35 YO male weighs 70kg. How much of his weight is considered total volume of body water ? - ANSWER 42L 26. A person is given an attenuated antigen as a vaccine. How should nurse response? The antigen is - ANSWER Alive, but less infectious 27. When a pt presents at the ER for an allergic reaction, nurse recognizes the most severe consequence of type 1 hypersensitivity is - ANSWER Anaphylaxis 28. A 30 YO female c/o fatigue, arthritis, rash, changes in urine color. Labs reveal anemia, lymphopenia, kidney inflammation. Likely dx of SLE. - ANSWER Autoantibodies 29. A 10 YO male is stung by a bee while playing in the yard. Itching and develops pain, swelling, redness, and resp difficulties. - ANSWER Anaphylaxis 30. Pt presents w/ poison ivy on the extremities, face, buttocks after in it isl exposure 48hrs ago. - ANSWER Delayed hypersensitivity 31. An infant is experiencing hemolytic disease of the newborn. What to expect in the infants H/P? - ANSWER The baby is Rh positive 32. When the maternal immune system becomes sensitized against antigens expressed by the fetus, what type of immune reaction occurs? - ANSWER Alloimmune 33. A 15 YO male suffers from severe hemorrhage following a MVA. Is given a blood transfusion, shortly after the red blood cells are destroyed by agglutination. - ANSWER A-AB 34. A 15 YO female is dx w/ Prader-Willi syndrome. - ANSWER Genomic imprinting 35. Which of the following mutations have the most significant effect on protein synthesis? - ANSWER Frameshift mutations 36. A DNA strand has a region with the sequence ATCGGAT. Which of the following would be a complementary strand? - ANSWER TAGCCTAG 37. A pt wants to know the risk factors for Down syndrome. - ANSWER Pregnancy in women over 35 38. A 9 YO pt is admitted to the pediatric unit w/ Duchenne muscular dystrophy. The pt inherited this condition through a trait that is - ANSWER X-linked recessive 39. A 50 YO male was dx w/ Huntington disease. - ANSWER Delayed age of onset 40. An aide asks the nurse why people w/ neurofibromatosis will show varying degrees of the disease. - ANSWER Expressivity 41. A 50 YO male IV drug user is dx w/ hep C. Liver reveals cell death secondary to - ANSWER Infection-induced apoptosis 42. A 40 YO females Pap smear indicates abnormal changes in the shape and organization of cervical cells. - ANSWER Dysplasia 43. While reading a textbook a student reads the term apoptosis. Recalls it is a condition in which cells program themselves to - ANSWER Die 44. A 55 YO male is dx w/ hepatocellular cancer secondary to hep C. If cancerous region is removed, remaining cells would undergo - ANSWER Compensatory hyperplasia 45. Confirmation of somatic death is based on - ANSWER Complete cessation of respiration and circulation 46. A 52 YO male suffered a MI secondary to atherosclerosis and ischemia. Reperfusion injury occurs as a result of - ANSWER Oxidation stress 47. A 30 YO female presents w/ a GSW to the head. Wound has seared edges and a deep penetration of gunpowder fragments. - ANSWER Contact range entrance 48. A 55 YO male w/ a 30-year hx of smoking is examined for respiratory disturbance. It's revealed that stratified squamous epithelial cells have replaced the normal columnar ciliated cells. - ANSWER Metaplasia 49. Which patient should the nurse assess for both hyperkalemia and metabolic acidosis? A patient diagnosed with: diabetes insipidus. pulmonary disorders. Cushing syndrome. renal failure. - ANSWER renal failure 50. When planning care for a dehydrated patient, the nurse remembers that the principle of water balance is closely related to the balance of: potassium. chloride. bicarbonate. sodium. - ANSWER Sodium 51. Which of the following patients should the nurse assess for decreased oncotic pressure in the capillaries? A patient with: a high-protein diet. liver failure. low blood pressure. low blood glucose. - ANSWER liver failure