1|Page
CCRN EXAM AND PRACTICE EXAM NEWEST 2025
TEST BANK| COMPLETE 250 REAL EXAM QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) GRADED A+| CRITICAL CARE
REGISTERED NURSE 2025 ACTUAL EXAM TEST
BANK|| BRAND NEW!!
A patient with a four-year history of type 1 diabetes is admitted with
influenza. The patient is lethargic, responds to name and follows simple
commands. Skin is dry, with poor turgor. Which of the follow is the most
likely cause of the patient's condition?
A. hyponatremia
B. hypoglycemia
C. ketosis
D. hypovolemia - Correct Answer - D. hypovolemia
A patient is admitted after a PCI to the RCA. four hours later, the patient
complains of flank pain, and vital sings are:
BP 84/50, HR 120, RR 32
A. PE
B. retroperitoneal bleed
C. coronary artery dissection
D. restenosis of the RCA - Correct Answer - B. retroperitoneal bleed
(caused by an arterial tear with bleeding int the flank area)
pg. 1
,2|Page
The most important indicator to be used in monitoring respiratory status
of a patient with Guillain Barre syndrome is
A. vital capacity
B. O2 sat
C. negative inspiratory force
D. A-a gradient (degree of shunt) - Correct Answer - A. vital capacity
A patient is admitted complaining of crushing chest pain, which began
two hours ago. An ECG shows ST elevation in leads V2-V4, which is
treated with a PCI procedure to the LAD. Post procedure the patient
develops oliguria and bilateral, diffuse crackles. Which of the following
hemodynamic findings should be expected at the point?
A. CO 3.8, BP 80/50, SVR 2200, PAP 40/24
B. CO 5.0, BP 86/50, SVR 1000, PAP 30/10
C. CO 2.9, BP 85/56, SVR 660, PAP 20/14
D. CO 6.8, BP 90/60, SVR 500, PAP 18/4 - Correct Answer - A. CO 3.8,
BP 80/50, SVR 2200, PAP 40/24 (anterior infarction predisposes him to
develop LV failure and cardiogenic shock)
Which of the following is a major complication following spinal cord
injury surgery involving the area below the thoracolumbar junction?
A. infection
B. autoimmune dysfunction
C. spinal shock
D. thermoregulation - Correct Answer - A. infection
pg. 2
,3|Page
A post-abdominal surgery patient has immediate change in LOC and is
hypotensive and tachycardic. Which of the following lab results indicate
an upper GI bleed in this patient?
A. metabolic alkalosis and decreased prothrombin time
B. elevated PTT and decreased BUN:creatinine ratio
C. decreased WBC and elevated PLT count
D. elevated serum sodium and BUN - Correct Answer - D. elevated
serum sodium and BUN (hyponatremia is due to loss of fluid through
emesis. elevated BUN reflects a large protein load from the breakdown
of blood)
Following ACS affecting the anterior wall, a patient develops SOB.
Assessment reveals moist bibasilar crackles and a moderately loud S3. A
pulmonary artery catheter is inserted, and a PAOP of 22 mm Hg is
obtained. These findings are most indicative of
A. impending cardiac tamponade
B. jugular vein distention (associated w/ right-sided failure an inferior
wall MI)
C. tricuspid valve dysfunction
D. left ventricular decompensation - Correct Answer - D. left ventricular
decompensation (associated with anterior wall MI)
Following his hip replacement surgery, an elderly patient with a history
of diabetes, hepatic insufficiency and alcohol abuse has a post op course
complicated by the development of a Staph infection at the surgical site.
Which of the following interventions has the high priority?
pg. 3
, 4|Page
A. place the patient on struct isolation
B. anticipate to return to the OR for exploration excisions
C. apple negative-pressure wound therapy
D. prepare the patient for wound closure - Correct Answer - B. anticipate
to return to the OR for exploration excisions (patient has risk factors and
signs of necrotizing fasciitis)
A patient with a history of ischemic cardiomyopathy is admitted with a
BP of 102/74, HR 122 with occasional irregular heartbeats, RR 42,
productive cough with frothy sputum and pitting edema in lower
extremities. The patient is anxious, restless and SOB. The patient's
primary problem is most likely
A. pulmonary edema
B. pulmonary embolism
C. acute coronary syndrome (associated with ST elevation)
D. acute papillary muscle rupture (associated with early onset of acute
coronary syndrome- regurgitant murmur) - Correct Answer - A.
pulmonary edema (tachypnea, dyspnea, frothy sputum)
Two weeks following an AMI, a patient is readmitted with an elevated
WBC count, fever, fatigue and sharp chest pain thats relieved when
leaning forward. The patient dyspneic on exertion, but bilateral breath
sounds are clear. Findings are most likely due to
A. pericarditis
B. pulmonary hypertension
C. pneumonia
pg. 4
CCRN EXAM AND PRACTICE EXAM NEWEST 2025
TEST BANK| COMPLETE 250 REAL EXAM QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) GRADED A+| CRITICAL CARE
REGISTERED NURSE 2025 ACTUAL EXAM TEST
BANK|| BRAND NEW!!
A patient with a four-year history of type 1 diabetes is admitted with
influenza. The patient is lethargic, responds to name and follows simple
commands. Skin is dry, with poor turgor. Which of the follow is the most
likely cause of the patient's condition?
A. hyponatremia
B. hypoglycemia
C. ketosis
D. hypovolemia - Correct Answer - D. hypovolemia
A patient is admitted after a PCI to the RCA. four hours later, the patient
complains of flank pain, and vital sings are:
BP 84/50, HR 120, RR 32
A. PE
B. retroperitoneal bleed
C. coronary artery dissection
D. restenosis of the RCA - Correct Answer - B. retroperitoneal bleed
(caused by an arterial tear with bleeding int the flank area)
pg. 1
,2|Page
The most important indicator to be used in monitoring respiratory status
of a patient with Guillain Barre syndrome is
A. vital capacity
B. O2 sat
C. negative inspiratory force
D. A-a gradient (degree of shunt) - Correct Answer - A. vital capacity
A patient is admitted complaining of crushing chest pain, which began
two hours ago. An ECG shows ST elevation in leads V2-V4, which is
treated with a PCI procedure to the LAD. Post procedure the patient
develops oliguria and bilateral, diffuse crackles. Which of the following
hemodynamic findings should be expected at the point?
A. CO 3.8, BP 80/50, SVR 2200, PAP 40/24
B. CO 5.0, BP 86/50, SVR 1000, PAP 30/10
C. CO 2.9, BP 85/56, SVR 660, PAP 20/14
D. CO 6.8, BP 90/60, SVR 500, PAP 18/4 - Correct Answer - A. CO 3.8,
BP 80/50, SVR 2200, PAP 40/24 (anterior infarction predisposes him to
develop LV failure and cardiogenic shock)
Which of the following is a major complication following spinal cord
injury surgery involving the area below the thoracolumbar junction?
A. infection
B. autoimmune dysfunction
C. spinal shock
D. thermoregulation - Correct Answer - A. infection
pg. 2
,3|Page
A post-abdominal surgery patient has immediate change in LOC and is
hypotensive and tachycardic. Which of the following lab results indicate
an upper GI bleed in this patient?
A. metabolic alkalosis and decreased prothrombin time
B. elevated PTT and decreased BUN:creatinine ratio
C. decreased WBC and elevated PLT count
D. elevated serum sodium and BUN - Correct Answer - D. elevated
serum sodium and BUN (hyponatremia is due to loss of fluid through
emesis. elevated BUN reflects a large protein load from the breakdown
of blood)
Following ACS affecting the anterior wall, a patient develops SOB.
Assessment reveals moist bibasilar crackles and a moderately loud S3. A
pulmonary artery catheter is inserted, and a PAOP of 22 mm Hg is
obtained. These findings are most indicative of
A. impending cardiac tamponade
B. jugular vein distention (associated w/ right-sided failure an inferior
wall MI)
C. tricuspid valve dysfunction
D. left ventricular decompensation - Correct Answer - D. left ventricular
decompensation (associated with anterior wall MI)
Following his hip replacement surgery, an elderly patient with a history
of diabetes, hepatic insufficiency and alcohol abuse has a post op course
complicated by the development of a Staph infection at the surgical site.
Which of the following interventions has the high priority?
pg. 3
, 4|Page
A. place the patient on struct isolation
B. anticipate to return to the OR for exploration excisions
C. apple negative-pressure wound therapy
D. prepare the patient for wound closure - Correct Answer - B. anticipate
to return to the OR for exploration excisions (patient has risk factors and
signs of necrotizing fasciitis)
A patient with a history of ischemic cardiomyopathy is admitted with a
BP of 102/74, HR 122 with occasional irregular heartbeats, RR 42,
productive cough with frothy sputum and pitting edema in lower
extremities. The patient is anxious, restless and SOB. The patient's
primary problem is most likely
A. pulmonary edema
B. pulmonary embolism
C. acute coronary syndrome (associated with ST elevation)
D. acute papillary muscle rupture (associated with early onset of acute
coronary syndrome- regurgitant murmur) - Correct Answer - A.
pulmonary edema (tachypnea, dyspnea, frothy sputum)
Two weeks following an AMI, a patient is readmitted with an elevated
WBC count, fever, fatigue and sharp chest pain thats relieved when
leaning forward. The patient dyspneic on exertion, but bilateral breath
sounds are clear. Findings are most likely due to
A. pericarditis
B. pulmonary hypertension
C. pneumonia
pg. 4
