ESTUDYR
CUSECO DOCUMENT: MIDTERM/FINAL QUESTIONS CONSOLIDATED
2025 UPDATE WITH COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
1. A key to export compliance and documentation is:
A) Shipping cost accuracy
B) Insurance valuation
C) Correct jurisdiction and classification of items to be exported
D) Freight forwarder registration
Rationale: Proper classification ensures adherence to export regulations.
2. Which U.S. origin item is not subject to the EAR?
A) Tactical rifle
B) Night-vision scope
C) Shotgun with a barrel length less than 18 inches
D) Drone camera
Rationale: Such shotguns are regulated under the National Firearms Act, not EAR.
3. Category 0 on the Commerce Control List includes:
A) GPS devices
B) Satellite phones
C) Handcuffs, firearm optical sights, military steel helmets
D) Encryption software
Rationale: CCL Category 0 covers “materials and miscellaneous articles,” including listed items.
4. A delay in responding to a formal CBP request for shipment paperwork:
A) Is always fined
B) May result in the shipment being seized
C) Has no consequence
D) Nullifies duty charges
Rationale: CBP may seize the shipment if documentation is not provided.
5. If a “red flag” applies to a transaction:
A) Ship immediately
B) Investigate suspicious circumstances; if unresolved, pause exports and contact BIS
C) Ignore it
D) Contact USTR
Rationale: Exporters must investigate and may need BIS guidance.
6. Which is recommended but NOT required recordkeeping?
A) Commercial invoices
B) Rationale for item classification
C) Export licenses
,ESTUDYR
D) Shipper’s export declaration
Rationale: Documenting classification decisions aids audits but isn’t mandatory.
7. Which can substitute for a Schedule B number?
A) HTS (Harmonized Tariff Schedule) number
B) DUNS number
C) HTS number
D) UNSPSC code
Rationale: HTS codes are U.S. Customs’ classification numbers.
8. Which identifies software as technical data under ITAR?
A) EAR
B) ITAR
C) OPTN
D) BIS
Rationale: ITAR defines software as controlled technical data under defense regulations.
9. When claiming an exemption for exporting unclassified technical data under ITAR, the
exporter must:
A) Notify OFAC
B) File an EAR license
C) Maintain a record of each export
D) Register with DDTC
Rationale: ITAR requires record retention for exempt technical data exports.
10. Digital recordkeeping systems must retrieve by:
o Party names
o Countries involved
o Document reference numbers
A) Only names
B) Names and countries
C) All three
D) Only document numbers
Rationale: All metadata criteria are required for compliance records.
11. Documents usually provided to the seller include:
A) Bill of quantities
B) UCC filing
C) Commercial invoice, packing list, certificate of origin
D) Export licenses
Rationale: These standard documents accompany international shipments.
, ESTUDYR
12. The DDTC screening list is called:
A) Designated Denied List
B) Entity List
C) Statutorily Debarred Parties List
D) Consolidated Screening List
Rationale: DDTC controls ITAR-related denied and debarred entities.
13. SME (Significant Military Equipment) articles have:
A) No military value
B) Low technical utility
C) Capacity for substantial military utility or capability
D) Restricted civilian use only
Rationale: SME items are specifically defined under ITAR.
14. SNAP-R is used to:
A) File OFAC reports
B) Schedule export shipments
C) Submit license applications to BIS
D) Obtain HTS numbers
Rationale: SNAP–R is BIS’s online licensing platform.
15. Classification Requests are submitted to:
A) NOAA
B) BIS
C) DOS
D) DOT
Rationale: BIS handles EAR commodity classification requests.
16. The NRC issues which type of export licenses?
A) Temporary only
B) General only
C) Specific only
D) General and specific licenses
Rationale: NRC offers both general-use and case-by-case authorization.
17. For permanent export of unclassified defense articles under ITAR, the license form is:
A) DSP-61
B) DSP-5
C) DSP-73
D) DSP-85
Rationale: DSP–5 is used for permanent export of defense articles under ITAR.
18. Which regulation generally governs munitions over others?
A) EAR
CUSECO DOCUMENT: MIDTERM/FINAL QUESTIONS CONSOLIDATED
2025 UPDATE WITH COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
1. A key to export compliance and documentation is:
A) Shipping cost accuracy
B) Insurance valuation
C) Correct jurisdiction and classification of items to be exported
D) Freight forwarder registration
Rationale: Proper classification ensures adherence to export regulations.
2. Which U.S. origin item is not subject to the EAR?
A) Tactical rifle
B) Night-vision scope
C) Shotgun with a barrel length less than 18 inches
D) Drone camera
Rationale: Such shotguns are regulated under the National Firearms Act, not EAR.
3. Category 0 on the Commerce Control List includes:
A) GPS devices
B) Satellite phones
C) Handcuffs, firearm optical sights, military steel helmets
D) Encryption software
Rationale: CCL Category 0 covers “materials and miscellaneous articles,” including listed items.
4. A delay in responding to a formal CBP request for shipment paperwork:
A) Is always fined
B) May result in the shipment being seized
C) Has no consequence
D) Nullifies duty charges
Rationale: CBP may seize the shipment if documentation is not provided.
5. If a “red flag” applies to a transaction:
A) Ship immediately
B) Investigate suspicious circumstances; if unresolved, pause exports and contact BIS
C) Ignore it
D) Contact USTR
Rationale: Exporters must investigate and may need BIS guidance.
6. Which is recommended but NOT required recordkeeping?
A) Commercial invoices
B) Rationale for item classification
C) Export licenses
,ESTUDYR
D) Shipper’s export declaration
Rationale: Documenting classification decisions aids audits but isn’t mandatory.
7. Which can substitute for a Schedule B number?
A) HTS (Harmonized Tariff Schedule) number
B) DUNS number
C) HTS number
D) UNSPSC code
Rationale: HTS codes are U.S. Customs’ classification numbers.
8. Which identifies software as technical data under ITAR?
A) EAR
B) ITAR
C) OPTN
D) BIS
Rationale: ITAR defines software as controlled technical data under defense regulations.
9. When claiming an exemption for exporting unclassified technical data under ITAR, the
exporter must:
A) Notify OFAC
B) File an EAR license
C) Maintain a record of each export
D) Register with DDTC
Rationale: ITAR requires record retention for exempt technical data exports.
10. Digital recordkeeping systems must retrieve by:
o Party names
o Countries involved
o Document reference numbers
A) Only names
B) Names and countries
C) All three
D) Only document numbers
Rationale: All metadata criteria are required for compliance records.
11. Documents usually provided to the seller include:
A) Bill of quantities
B) UCC filing
C) Commercial invoice, packing list, certificate of origin
D) Export licenses
Rationale: These standard documents accompany international shipments.
, ESTUDYR
12. The DDTC screening list is called:
A) Designated Denied List
B) Entity List
C) Statutorily Debarred Parties List
D) Consolidated Screening List
Rationale: DDTC controls ITAR-related denied and debarred entities.
13. SME (Significant Military Equipment) articles have:
A) No military value
B) Low technical utility
C) Capacity for substantial military utility or capability
D) Restricted civilian use only
Rationale: SME items are specifically defined under ITAR.
14. SNAP-R is used to:
A) File OFAC reports
B) Schedule export shipments
C) Submit license applications to BIS
D) Obtain HTS numbers
Rationale: SNAP–R is BIS’s online licensing platform.
15. Classification Requests are submitted to:
A) NOAA
B) BIS
C) DOS
D) DOT
Rationale: BIS handles EAR commodity classification requests.
16. The NRC issues which type of export licenses?
A) Temporary only
B) General only
C) Specific only
D) General and specific licenses
Rationale: NRC offers both general-use and case-by-case authorization.
17. For permanent export of unclassified defense articles under ITAR, the license form is:
A) DSP-61
B) DSP-5
C) DSP-73
D) DSP-85
Rationale: DSP–5 is used for permanent export of defense articles under ITAR.
18. Which regulation generally governs munitions over others?
A) EAR
