NR 602 Week 8 Final Exam / NR602 Week 8 Final
Exam(V2)(70 Q & A)(NEWEST, 2020) : Chamberlain
College of Nursing (LATEST answers, Download to
score A)
NR 602 Week 8 Final Exam Practice:
Primary Care of the Childbearing and
Childrearing Family
Instructions
This practice exam consists of 70 multiple-choice questions designed to prepare you for the NR
602 Week 8 Final Exam at Chamberlain College of Nursing. The questions cover key topics in
primary care for childbearing and childrearing families, including women’s health, pediatric
care, STIs, contraception, and breast health. Each question includes four answer options, listed
on separate lines, the correct answer, and a rationale explaining why the answer is correct. Use
this to study and reinforce your understanding of the course material.
Question 1
What is the ASCCP recommended management for an ASCUS Pap result with a positive high-
risk HPV 16 cotest in a 26-year-old woman without a history of abnormal Pap smears?
a. Immediate hysterectomy
b. Colposcopy
c. Repeat Pap smear in 6 months
d. No further action
Correct Answer: b
Rationale: According to ASCCP guidelines, an ASCUS (atypical squamous cells of
undetermined significance) Pap result with a positive high-risk HPV 16 cotest in a 26-year-old
requires colposcopy to evaluate for cervical abnormalities.
Question 2
,A well-woman visit for an adolescent should include which of the following?
a. Routine mammogram
b. Discussion of sexual health and STI prevention
c. Colonoscopy screening
d. Bone density scan
Correct Answer: b
Rationale: A well-woman visit for an adolescent should include education on sexual health, STI
prevention, and contraception, tailored to their developmental stage and needs.
Question 3
A Bethesda system Pap smear report that reads LSIL is most consistent with which
classification?
a. High-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion
b. Low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion
c. Atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance
d. Cervical cancer
Correct Answer: b
Rationale: LSIL (low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion) indicates mild dysplasia, often
associated with HPV infection, and is distinct from high-grade lesions or cancer.
Question 4
A single Pap smear reading of ASCUS in a patient negative for HPV infection should have what
as follow-up?
a. Immediate colposcopy
b. Repeat Pap smear in 12 months
c. Hysterectomy
d. Cervical biopsy
Correct Answer: b
Rationale: For an ASCUS Pap result with negative HPV, ASCCP guidelines recommend
repeating the Pap smear in 12 months, as the risk of significant pathology is low.
Question 5
A 35-year-old woman with no history of abnormal Pap smears has a normal Pap smear with
HPV testing today. When should she have her next cervical cancer screening?
, a. 1 year
b. 3 years
c. 5 years
d. 10 years
Correct Answer: c
Rationale: According to ACOG guidelines, women aged 30–65 with a normal Pap smear and
negative HPV test should have repeat screening every 5 years.
Question 6
The most common type of invasive breast carcinoma is:
a. Infiltrating lobular
b. Infiltrating ductal
c. Medullary carcinoma
d. Mucinous carcinoma
Correct Answer: b
Rationale: Infiltrating ductal carcinoma is the most common type of invasive breast cancer,
accounting for approximately 70–80% of cases.
Question 7
Measuring waist circumference is most appropriate when the client’s BMI places her in which
category?
a. Underweight
b. Normal weight
c. Overweight
d. Obese
Correct Answer: c
Rationale: Measuring waist circumference is most relevant for clients with an overweight BMI
(25–29.9) to assess for central obesity and related health risks.
Question 8
A 21-year-old woman seeking birth control has little knowledge of reproductive anatomy and
does not use tampons. Which contraceptive method is least likely to meet her needs?
a. Oral contraceptives
b. NuvaRing
Exam(V2)(70 Q & A)(NEWEST, 2020) : Chamberlain
College of Nursing (LATEST answers, Download to
score A)
NR 602 Week 8 Final Exam Practice:
Primary Care of the Childbearing and
Childrearing Family
Instructions
This practice exam consists of 70 multiple-choice questions designed to prepare you for the NR
602 Week 8 Final Exam at Chamberlain College of Nursing. The questions cover key topics in
primary care for childbearing and childrearing families, including women’s health, pediatric
care, STIs, contraception, and breast health. Each question includes four answer options, listed
on separate lines, the correct answer, and a rationale explaining why the answer is correct. Use
this to study and reinforce your understanding of the course material.
Question 1
What is the ASCCP recommended management for an ASCUS Pap result with a positive high-
risk HPV 16 cotest in a 26-year-old woman without a history of abnormal Pap smears?
a. Immediate hysterectomy
b. Colposcopy
c. Repeat Pap smear in 6 months
d. No further action
Correct Answer: b
Rationale: According to ASCCP guidelines, an ASCUS (atypical squamous cells of
undetermined significance) Pap result with a positive high-risk HPV 16 cotest in a 26-year-old
requires colposcopy to evaluate for cervical abnormalities.
Question 2
,A well-woman visit for an adolescent should include which of the following?
a. Routine mammogram
b. Discussion of sexual health and STI prevention
c. Colonoscopy screening
d. Bone density scan
Correct Answer: b
Rationale: A well-woman visit for an adolescent should include education on sexual health, STI
prevention, and contraception, tailored to their developmental stage and needs.
Question 3
A Bethesda system Pap smear report that reads LSIL is most consistent with which
classification?
a. High-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion
b. Low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion
c. Atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance
d. Cervical cancer
Correct Answer: b
Rationale: LSIL (low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion) indicates mild dysplasia, often
associated with HPV infection, and is distinct from high-grade lesions or cancer.
Question 4
A single Pap smear reading of ASCUS in a patient negative for HPV infection should have what
as follow-up?
a. Immediate colposcopy
b. Repeat Pap smear in 12 months
c. Hysterectomy
d. Cervical biopsy
Correct Answer: b
Rationale: For an ASCUS Pap result with negative HPV, ASCCP guidelines recommend
repeating the Pap smear in 12 months, as the risk of significant pathology is low.
Question 5
A 35-year-old woman with no history of abnormal Pap smears has a normal Pap smear with
HPV testing today. When should she have her next cervical cancer screening?
, a. 1 year
b. 3 years
c. 5 years
d. 10 years
Correct Answer: c
Rationale: According to ACOG guidelines, women aged 30–65 with a normal Pap smear and
negative HPV test should have repeat screening every 5 years.
Question 6
The most common type of invasive breast carcinoma is:
a. Infiltrating lobular
b. Infiltrating ductal
c. Medullary carcinoma
d. Mucinous carcinoma
Correct Answer: b
Rationale: Infiltrating ductal carcinoma is the most common type of invasive breast cancer,
accounting for approximately 70–80% of cases.
Question 7
Measuring waist circumference is most appropriate when the client’s BMI places her in which
category?
a. Underweight
b. Normal weight
c. Overweight
d. Obese
Correct Answer: c
Rationale: Measuring waist circumference is most relevant for clients with an overweight BMI
(25–29.9) to assess for central obesity and related health risks.
Question 8
A 21-year-old woman seeking birth control has little knowledge of reproductive anatomy and
does not use tampons. Which contraceptive method is least likely to meet her needs?
a. Oral contraceptives
b. NuvaRing
