,PHARMACOTHERAPEUTICS CERTIFIED PREP &
TEST BANK (2025): ARCANGELO & PETERSON
5TH ED.
📘 Verified | Detailed Rationales | 1,120 Questions | Designed for Guaranteed Clinical
Competency
Table of Contents
1. Issues for the Practitioner in Drug Therapy
2. Pharmacokinetic Basis of Therapeutics and Pharmacodynamic Principles
3. Impact of Drug Interactions and Adverse Events on Therapeutics
4. Principles of Pharmacotherapy in Pediatrics, Pregnancy and Lactation
5. Pharmacotherapy Principles in Older Adults
6. Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy
7. Pharmacogenomics
8. The Economics of Pharmacotherapeutics
9. Principles of Pharmacology in Pain Management
10. Pain Management in Opioid Use Disorder (OUD) Patients
11. Cannabis and Pain Management
12. Dermatitis
13. Bacterial, Fungal, and Viral Infections of the Skin
14. Psoriasis
15. Acne Vulgaris and Rosacea
16. Ophthalmic Disorders
17. Otitis Media and Otitis Externa
18. Hypertension
19. Hyperlipidemia
20. Chronic Stable Angina and Myocardial Infarction
,21. Heart Failure
22. Arrhythmias
23. Respiratory Infections
24. Asthma and Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
25. Gastric, Functional and Inflammatory Bowel Disorders
26. Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease and Peptic Ulcer Disease
27. Liver Diseases
28. Urinary Tract Infection
29. Prostatic Disorders and Erectile Dysfunction
30. Overactive Bladder
31. Sexually Transmitted Infections
32. Osteoarthritis and Gout
33. Osteoporosis
34. Rheumatoid Arthritis
35. Headaches
36. Seizure Disorders
37. Alzheimer’s Disease
38. Parkinson Disease
39. Major Depressive Disorder and Bipolar Disorders
40. Anxiety Disorders
41. Sleep Disorders
42. Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder
43. Substance Use Disorders
44. Diabetes Mellitus
45. Thyroid and Parathyroid Disorders
46. Allergies and Allergic Reactions
47. Human Immunodeficiency Virus
,48. Organ Transplantation
49. Pharmacotherapy for Select Thromboembolic Disorders
50. Anemias
51. Immunizations
52. Smoking Cessation
53. Weight Loss
54. Contraception
55. Menopause
56. Vaginitis
1. Which of the following best describes prescriptive
authority for advanced practice providers (APPs)?
,A. APPs have identical prescriptive rights in all states.
B. APPs may prescribe independently regardless of state
regulations.
C. Prescriptive authority varies by state and may require
collaborative agreements.
D. APPs cannot prescribe controlled substances.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: State laws differ; many require collaborative or
supervisory agreements (C). A is incorrect because rights
differ by state. B is incorrect; independent prescribing
depends on state. D is incorrect; APPs can prescribe
controlled substances where authorized.
2. An APP wants to verify their legal scope before
prescribing. Which resource is most appropriate?
A. Hospital policy manual
B. State nursing/practice act
C. Drug reference guide
D. Patient’s insurance formulary
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The state practice act outlines APP legal scope (B).
A may reflect institutional policy but not legal scope. C
provides drug info, not prescriptive authority. D guides
coverage, not scope.
,3. A nurse practitioner prescribes an antibiotic without
confirming current renal function. This breach most likely
violates which ethical principle?
A. Autonomy
B. Beneficence
C. Justice
D. Nonmaleficence
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Failing to assess renal function risks harm
(nonmaleficence, D). A pertains to patient choice. B focuses
on doing good. C involves fairness.
4. When facing a prescribing error, the APP’s first step
should be to:
A. Document the error in the medical record without
disclosure.
B. Notify the patient and apologize.
C. Transfer the patient’s care elsewhere.
D. Report to the state board immediately.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Ethical accountability requires transparent
apology to patient (B). A is incorrect; nondisclosure is
unethical. C avoids responsibility. D may follow but
immediate patient notification is priority.
,5. To minimize polypharmacy, an APP should prioritize:
A. Adding new medications to manage side effects.
B. Deprescribing unnecessary or redundant drugs.
C. Switching brand names to generics.
D. Increasing doses of current therapy.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Deprescribing reduces unnecessary medications
(B). A increases polypharmacy. C concerns cost, not number.
D alters dose but not count.
6. Which is an evidence-based strategy to improve
adherence?
A. Prescribing the most expensive formulation
B. Simplifying dosing regimen
C. Omitting patient education for brevity
D. Discharging without follow-up
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Simpler regimens enhance adherence (B). A may
limit affordability. C undermines understanding. D removes
support.
7. An APP uses the Teach-Back method to ensure patient
understanding. This approach primarily addresses:
A. Cultural competence
B. Health literacy
,C. Pharmacokinetics
D. Drug interactions
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Teach-Back confirms patient comprehension
(health literacy, B). A is broader cultural context. C and D are
clinical concepts.
8. Shared decision-making is most facilitated by:
A. Presenting only the APP’s preferred treatment.
B. Providing balanced information on options.
C. Deferring all choices to the patient.
D. Making decisions based on cost alone.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Balanced information enables joint choice (B). A
biases decision. C denies professional guidance. D neglects
clinical factors.
9. Which factor least affects cultural competence in
prescribing?
A. Patient’s language proficiency
B. Traditional health beliefs
C. APP’s clinical training institution
D. Dietary practices
,Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Cultural competence relates to patient culture (A,
B, D). Training institution (C) is not patient-specific.
10. An APP prescribes multiple CNS depressants. Which
principle guides careful review?
A. Autonomy
B. Beneficence
C. Polypharmacy avoidance
D. Confidentiality
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Avoidance of polypharmacy to reduce interactions
(C). A, B, D are ethical principles but not specific to this risk.
11. In a state requiring a collaborative agreement, which is
a valid prescribing practice?
A. Prescribing outside agreement without notifying
collaborator.
B. Prescribing only within terms of formal agreement.
C. Independently adding controlled substances.
D. Bypassing agreement for urgent cases.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: APPs must follow their state-defined collaborative
agreement (B). A and D break policy. C requires specific
authorization.
, 12. Which scenario demonstrates provider accountability?
A. Blaming the pharmacy for dispensing error.
B. Reviewing and acknowledging own prescribing mistake.
C. Documenting error in personal notes only.
D. Ignoring minor discrepancies.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Accountability involves self-review and correction
(B). A deflects. C hides record. D disregards safety.
13. Evidence-based prescribing integrates research data
and:
A. Patient preferences and clinical expertise.
B. Medication cost alone.
C. Only textbook guidelines.
D. Solely prescriber intuition.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: EBP merges best evidence with patient values and
clinical skill (A). B, C, D are incomplete.
14. A patient on five or more meds is at risk of:
A. Underutilization
B. Nonadherence
C. Therapeutic duplication
D. Improved outcomes
TEST BANK (2025): ARCANGELO & PETERSON
5TH ED.
📘 Verified | Detailed Rationales | 1,120 Questions | Designed for Guaranteed Clinical
Competency
Table of Contents
1. Issues for the Practitioner in Drug Therapy
2. Pharmacokinetic Basis of Therapeutics and Pharmacodynamic Principles
3. Impact of Drug Interactions and Adverse Events on Therapeutics
4. Principles of Pharmacotherapy in Pediatrics, Pregnancy and Lactation
5. Pharmacotherapy Principles in Older Adults
6. Principles of Antimicrobial Therapy
7. Pharmacogenomics
8. The Economics of Pharmacotherapeutics
9. Principles of Pharmacology in Pain Management
10. Pain Management in Opioid Use Disorder (OUD) Patients
11. Cannabis and Pain Management
12. Dermatitis
13. Bacterial, Fungal, and Viral Infections of the Skin
14. Psoriasis
15. Acne Vulgaris and Rosacea
16. Ophthalmic Disorders
17. Otitis Media and Otitis Externa
18. Hypertension
19. Hyperlipidemia
20. Chronic Stable Angina and Myocardial Infarction
,21. Heart Failure
22. Arrhythmias
23. Respiratory Infections
24. Asthma and Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
25. Gastric, Functional and Inflammatory Bowel Disorders
26. Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease and Peptic Ulcer Disease
27. Liver Diseases
28. Urinary Tract Infection
29. Prostatic Disorders and Erectile Dysfunction
30. Overactive Bladder
31. Sexually Transmitted Infections
32. Osteoarthritis and Gout
33. Osteoporosis
34. Rheumatoid Arthritis
35. Headaches
36. Seizure Disorders
37. Alzheimer’s Disease
38. Parkinson Disease
39. Major Depressive Disorder and Bipolar Disorders
40. Anxiety Disorders
41. Sleep Disorders
42. Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder
43. Substance Use Disorders
44. Diabetes Mellitus
45. Thyroid and Parathyroid Disorders
46. Allergies and Allergic Reactions
47. Human Immunodeficiency Virus
,48. Organ Transplantation
49. Pharmacotherapy for Select Thromboembolic Disorders
50. Anemias
51. Immunizations
52. Smoking Cessation
53. Weight Loss
54. Contraception
55. Menopause
56. Vaginitis
1. Which of the following best describes prescriptive
authority for advanced practice providers (APPs)?
,A. APPs have identical prescriptive rights in all states.
B. APPs may prescribe independently regardless of state
regulations.
C. Prescriptive authority varies by state and may require
collaborative agreements.
D. APPs cannot prescribe controlled substances.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: State laws differ; many require collaborative or
supervisory agreements (C). A is incorrect because rights
differ by state. B is incorrect; independent prescribing
depends on state. D is incorrect; APPs can prescribe
controlled substances where authorized.
2. An APP wants to verify their legal scope before
prescribing. Which resource is most appropriate?
A. Hospital policy manual
B. State nursing/practice act
C. Drug reference guide
D. Patient’s insurance formulary
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The state practice act outlines APP legal scope (B).
A may reflect institutional policy but not legal scope. C
provides drug info, not prescriptive authority. D guides
coverage, not scope.
,3. A nurse practitioner prescribes an antibiotic without
confirming current renal function. This breach most likely
violates which ethical principle?
A. Autonomy
B. Beneficence
C. Justice
D. Nonmaleficence
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Failing to assess renal function risks harm
(nonmaleficence, D). A pertains to patient choice. B focuses
on doing good. C involves fairness.
4. When facing a prescribing error, the APP’s first step
should be to:
A. Document the error in the medical record without
disclosure.
B. Notify the patient and apologize.
C. Transfer the patient’s care elsewhere.
D. Report to the state board immediately.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Ethical accountability requires transparent
apology to patient (B). A is incorrect; nondisclosure is
unethical. C avoids responsibility. D may follow but
immediate patient notification is priority.
,5. To minimize polypharmacy, an APP should prioritize:
A. Adding new medications to manage side effects.
B. Deprescribing unnecessary or redundant drugs.
C. Switching brand names to generics.
D. Increasing doses of current therapy.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Deprescribing reduces unnecessary medications
(B). A increases polypharmacy. C concerns cost, not number.
D alters dose but not count.
6. Which is an evidence-based strategy to improve
adherence?
A. Prescribing the most expensive formulation
B. Simplifying dosing regimen
C. Omitting patient education for brevity
D. Discharging without follow-up
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Simpler regimens enhance adherence (B). A may
limit affordability. C undermines understanding. D removes
support.
7. An APP uses the Teach-Back method to ensure patient
understanding. This approach primarily addresses:
A. Cultural competence
B. Health literacy
,C. Pharmacokinetics
D. Drug interactions
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Teach-Back confirms patient comprehension
(health literacy, B). A is broader cultural context. C and D are
clinical concepts.
8. Shared decision-making is most facilitated by:
A. Presenting only the APP’s preferred treatment.
B. Providing balanced information on options.
C. Deferring all choices to the patient.
D. Making decisions based on cost alone.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Balanced information enables joint choice (B). A
biases decision. C denies professional guidance. D neglects
clinical factors.
9. Which factor least affects cultural competence in
prescribing?
A. Patient’s language proficiency
B. Traditional health beliefs
C. APP’s clinical training institution
D. Dietary practices
,Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Cultural competence relates to patient culture (A,
B, D). Training institution (C) is not patient-specific.
10. An APP prescribes multiple CNS depressants. Which
principle guides careful review?
A. Autonomy
B. Beneficence
C. Polypharmacy avoidance
D. Confidentiality
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Avoidance of polypharmacy to reduce interactions
(C). A, B, D are ethical principles but not specific to this risk.
11. In a state requiring a collaborative agreement, which is
a valid prescribing practice?
A. Prescribing outside agreement without notifying
collaborator.
B. Prescribing only within terms of formal agreement.
C. Independently adding controlled substances.
D. Bypassing agreement for urgent cases.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: APPs must follow their state-defined collaborative
agreement (B). A and D break policy. C requires specific
authorization.
, 12. Which scenario demonstrates provider accountability?
A. Blaming the pharmacy for dispensing error.
B. Reviewing and acknowledging own prescribing mistake.
C. Documenting error in personal notes only.
D. Ignoring minor discrepancies.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Accountability involves self-review and correction
(B). A deflects. C hides record. D disregards safety.
13. Evidence-based prescribing integrates research data
and:
A. Patient preferences and clinical expertise.
B. Medication cost alone.
C. Only textbook guidelines.
D. Solely prescriber intuition.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: EBP merges best evidence with patient values and
clinical skill (A). B, C, D are incomplete.
14. A patient on five or more meds is at risk of:
A. Underutilization
B. Nonadherence
C. Therapeutic duplication
D. Improved outcomes
