APEA 3P ACTUAL EXAM {TEST BANK} WITH 100% CORRECT
VERIFIED ANSWERS (MOSTLY RESOURCEFUL)
1. A 65-year-old male with a history of chronic bronchitis presents with increased dyspnea
and sputum production. Which of the following is the most likely pathophysiological
mechanism for his symptoms?
A) Alveolar wall destruction
B) Airway inflammation and mucus hypersecretion
C) Pulmonary embolism
D) Left ventricular failure
Answer: B) Airway inflammation and mucus hypersecretion
Explanation: Chronic bronchitis is characterized by inflammation of the bronchi and excess mucus
production leading to airway obstruction.
2. In heart failure, decreased cardiac output leads to activation of the renin-angiotensin-
aldosterone system (RAAS). Which effect is NOT a direct result of RAAS activation?
A) Vasoconstriction
B) Sodium and water retention
C) Increased myocardial contractility
D) Aldosterone secretion
Answer: C) Increased myocardial contractility
Explanation: RAAS causes vasoconstriction and sodium retention but does not directly increase
myocardial contractility.
3. Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with prolonged QT interval
and torsades de pointes?
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Hypokalemia
C) Hypercalcemia
D) Hypermagnesemia
Answer: B) Hypokalemia
Explanation: Hypokalemia prolongs repolarization, increasing risk of torsades.
4. A 30-year-old woman presents with exophthalmos, weight loss, and heat intolerance.
Which of the following lab findings best supports a diagnosis of Graves disease?
A) Low TSH, high free T4
B) High TSH, low free T4
C) Low TSH, low free T4
D) High TSH, high free T4
Answer: A) Low TSH, high free T4
Explanation: Graves disease is an autoimmune hyperthyroidism causing low TSH and elevated free
T4.
5. In diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), which of the following metabolic disturbances primarily
leads to metabolic acidosis?
A) Accumulation of lactic acid
B) Accumulation of ketone bodies
C) Hyperchloremia
D) Dehydration
, APEA 3P ACTUAL EXAM {TEST BANK} WITH 100% CORRECT
VERIFIED ANSWERS (MOSTLY RESOURCEFUL)
Answer: B) Accumulation of ketone bodies
Explanation: Ketone bodies are acidic, causing metabolic acidosis.
Pharmacology
6. Which medication class is contraindicated in patients with a history of angioedema
related to ACE inhibitors?
A) Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs)
B) Beta blockers
C) Calcium channel blockers
D) Thiazide diuretics
Answer: A) Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs)
Explanation: ARBs are generally avoided in patients with ACE inhibitor-induced angioedema due to
risk of cross-reactivity.
7. A patient taking warfarin begins amiodarone therapy. What is the most likely effect on
warfarin dosing?
A) No change
B) Decrease warfarin dose
C) Increase warfarin dose
D) Stop warfarin
Answer: B) Decrease warfarin dose
Explanation: Amiodarone inhibits warfarin metabolism, increasing INR, requiring warfarin dose
reduction.
8. Which antibiotic is known for causing "red man syndrome" if infused too rapidly?
A) Vancomycin
B) Gentamicin
C) Ciprofloxacin
D) Metronidazole
Answer: A) Vancomycin
Explanation: Red man syndrome is a histamine-mediated reaction caused by rapid vancomycin
infusion.
9. Which class of drugs works by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin
II?
A) Beta blockers
B) Calcium channel blockers
C) ACE inhibitors
D) Diuretics
Answer: C) ACE inhibitors
Explanation: ACE inhibitors block ACE enzyme, preventing angiotensin II formation.
10. Which medication is preferred for first-line treatment of hypertension in pregnancy?
A) Lisinopril
B) Methyldopa
C) Atenolol
D) Hydrochlorothiazide
VERIFIED ANSWERS (MOSTLY RESOURCEFUL)
1. A 65-year-old male with a history of chronic bronchitis presents with increased dyspnea
and sputum production. Which of the following is the most likely pathophysiological
mechanism for his symptoms?
A) Alveolar wall destruction
B) Airway inflammation and mucus hypersecretion
C) Pulmonary embolism
D) Left ventricular failure
Answer: B) Airway inflammation and mucus hypersecretion
Explanation: Chronic bronchitis is characterized by inflammation of the bronchi and excess mucus
production leading to airway obstruction.
2. In heart failure, decreased cardiac output leads to activation of the renin-angiotensin-
aldosterone system (RAAS). Which effect is NOT a direct result of RAAS activation?
A) Vasoconstriction
B) Sodium and water retention
C) Increased myocardial contractility
D) Aldosterone secretion
Answer: C) Increased myocardial contractility
Explanation: RAAS causes vasoconstriction and sodium retention but does not directly increase
myocardial contractility.
3. Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with prolonged QT interval
and torsades de pointes?
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Hypokalemia
C) Hypercalcemia
D) Hypermagnesemia
Answer: B) Hypokalemia
Explanation: Hypokalemia prolongs repolarization, increasing risk of torsades.
4. A 30-year-old woman presents with exophthalmos, weight loss, and heat intolerance.
Which of the following lab findings best supports a diagnosis of Graves disease?
A) Low TSH, high free T4
B) High TSH, low free T4
C) Low TSH, low free T4
D) High TSH, high free T4
Answer: A) Low TSH, high free T4
Explanation: Graves disease is an autoimmune hyperthyroidism causing low TSH and elevated free
T4.
5. In diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), which of the following metabolic disturbances primarily
leads to metabolic acidosis?
A) Accumulation of lactic acid
B) Accumulation of ketone bodies
C) Hyperchloremia
D) Dehydration
, APEA 3P ACTUAL EXAM {TEST BANK} WITH 100% CORRECT
VERIFIED ANSWERS (MOSTLY RESOURCEFUL)
Answer: B) Accumulation of ketone bodies
Explanation: Ketone bodies are acidic, causing metabolic acidosis.
Pharmacology
6. Which medication class is contraindicated in patients with a history of angioedema
related to ACE inhibitors?
A) Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs)
B) Beta blockers
C) Calcium channel blockers
D) Thiazide diuretics
Answer: A) Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs)
Explanation: ARBs are generally avoided in patients with ACE inhibitor-induced angioedema due to
risk of cross-reactivity.
7. A patient taking warfarin begins amiodarone therapy. What is the most likely effect on
warfarin dosing?
A) No change
B) Decrease warfarin dose
C) Increase warfarin dose
D) Stop warfarin
Answer: B) Decrease warfarin dose
Explanation: Amiodarone inhibits warfarin metabolism, increasing INR, requiring warfarin dose
reduction.
8. Which antibiotic is known for causing "red man syndrome" if infused too rapidly?
A) Vancomycin
B) Gentamicin
C) Ciprofloxacin
D) Metronidazole
Answer: A) Vancomycin
Explanation: Red man syndrome is a histamine-mediated reaction caused by rapid vancomycin
infusion.
9. Which class of drugs works by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin
II?
A) Beta blockers
B) Calcium channel blockers
C) ACE inhibitors
D) Diuretics
Answer: C) ACE inhibitors
Explanation: ACE inhibitors block ACE enzyme, preventing angiotensin II formation.
10. Which medication is preferred for first-line treatment of hypertension in pregnancy?
A) Lisinopril
B) Methyldopa
C) Atenolol
D) Hydrochlorothiazide
