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FSBPT PRACTICE EXAM 2 QUESTIONS WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS

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FSBPT PRACTICE EXAM 2 QUESTIONS WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS

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FSBPT PRACTICE EXAM 2 QUESTIONS
WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS
Which of the following exercises is CONTRAINDICATED for a patient who is 2 weeks
post total shoulder arthroplasty with rotator cuff repair?
1. Isometric shoulder adduction
2. Shoulder flexion with wand
3. Active shoulder abduction
4. Codman's pendulum - Answer-3. Active shoulder abduction

1. For a patient who underwent total shoulder arthroplasty with repair of a large tear or
rupture of a rotator cuff tendon, it may not be permissible to begin range of motion
exercises immediately after surgery. When the sling or splint can be removed for
exercise, only passive or assisted range of motion should be performed throughout the
first phase of rehabilitation. The range of shoulder elevation and lateral (external)
rotation initially permitted may be less than for shoulders that did not require cuff repair.
Actively (unassisted), antigravity range of motion and light isometrics should be
postponed until the second phase (approximately 6 weeks postoperatively, which
repaired soft tissues are reasonably well healed).
2. Although shoulder flexion with a wand may be considered an active assisted range of
motion exercise, strength of rotator cuff muscles should be restored prior to
strengthening shoulder flexors/abductors (p. 564).
3. Maximum protection phase allows for passive or active assistive range of motion
only, active shoulder range of motion is not allowed (p. 565).
4. Codman's pendulum exercises are part of the stated protocol for maximum protective
phase (p. 562).

Which of the following interventions is MOST appropriate for a patient who has
hemophilia and is in the acute stage of joint healing following a hemarthrosis of the knee
joint?
1. Stretching
2. Joint mobilization
3. Hot pack to the knee
4. Cold pack to the knee - Answer-4. Cold pack to the knee

1. Stretching is not indicated during the acute phase because of the risk of repeated
bleeding. Only active range of motion (ROM) in a pain-free range should be performed.
2. Joint mobilization is not indicated during the acute phase because of the risk of
repeated bleeding. Only active range of motion (ROM) in a pain-free range should be
performed.
3. Cold application is most appropriate to reduce the risk of bleeding.

,4. At this stage of recovery, the patient should be following the RICE (rest, ice,
compression, elevation) principle. Cold packs should be appropriate.

Which of the following heart valves prevent backflow of blood into the ventricles during
the diastolic phase?
1. Mitral and tricuspid
2. Pulmonary and tricuspid
3. Mitral and aortic
4. Pulmonary and aortic - Answer-4. Pulmonary and aortic

1. Both the mitral and the tricuspid valves prevent backflow during systole (pp. 292-
293).
2. The tricuspid valve prevents backflow during systole (p. 292).
3. The mitral valve prevents backflow into the atria during the systolic phase (p. 293).
4. The pulmonary and aortic valves are the two semilunar-shaped valves that prevent
backflow of blood from the aorta and pulmonary arteries during the diastolic phase (pp.
292-294).

Which of the following exercises would be MOST beneficial for a patient who has a
transtibial amputation?
1. Hip abduction in seated position
2. Hip adduction in standing position
3. Hip and knee extension in prone position
4. Hip and knee flexion in supine position - Answer-3. Hip and knee extension in prone
position

1. Although hip abduction is important, strengthening in the seated position is not as
effective as strengthening in sidelying position and working against gravity (Kisner).
2. With a transtibial amputation, good strength in the hip extensors and abductors as
well as knee flexors and extensors is needed for prosthetic gait training. Hip adductors
are less critical. (O'Sullivan, p. 964)
3. Hip and knee extension counter the positions of typical contracture of hip and knee
flexion (O'Sullivan, pp. 959-960).
4. Hip and knee flexion are typical positions of joint contracture (O'Sullivan, pp. 959-
960).

Following carpal tunnel release surgery, which of the following interventions is part of an
appropriate plan of care during the recovery phase of reinnervation?
1. Splinting of the hand to prevent wrist drop
2. Strengthening exercises for the interossei
3. Strengthening exercises for the abductor pollicis longus
4. Rubbing gently with cotton on the medial thenar eminence - Answer-4. Rubbing
gently with cotton on the medial thenar eminence

, 1. A splint for wrist drop would be needed if there was a radial nerve injury proximal to
the wrist. Carpal tunnel release surgery involves the median nerve and is performed at
the wrist. (p. 389)
2. The interossei are innervated by the ulnar nerve and would not be weak due to carpal
tunnel syndrome (p. 388).
3. The abductor pollicis longus is innervated by the radial nerve. It would not need
strengthening after a median nerve injury in the carpal tunnel. (p. 389)
4. In the recovery phase of reinnervation, it is appropriate to incorporate desensitization
techniques to address hypersensitive areas (p. 395). Cotton material may be used for
sensory stimulation (p. 396). The medial thenar eminence is innervated by the median
nerve (p. 388).

The Timed Up and Go Test is used to measure which of the following functions?
1. Balance during mobility
2. Unsupported dynamic standing balance
3. Ability to avoid obstacles and navigate in crowded spaces
4. Ability to perform tasks of increasing difficulty from seated to bipedal stance -
Answer-1. The Timed up and Go Test (TUG) is used to measure dynamic balance and
mobility (p. 217).
2. The ability to maintain balance unsupported while reaching in multiple directions is a
function measured by the Functional Reach Test (p. 216).
3. The Tinetti Performance Oriented Mobility Assessment provides a better measure of
the ability to avoid obstacles and navigate in crowded spaces (p. 213).
4. The ability to perform tasks of increasing difficulty from seated to bipedal stance are
best measured by the Berg Balance Scale (p. 213).

Prior to the start of a treatment session, a patient's vital signs are taken while the patient
is in supine position. Which of the following findings should cause the MOST concern?
1. Heart rate of 120 bpm
2. Oxygen saturation of 96%
3. Blood pressure of 160/90 mm Hg
4. Respiratory rate of 18 breaths/minute - Answer-1. Heart rate of 120 bpm

1. Normal heart rate in an adult is 60-100 bpm (O'Sullivan, p. 31). A resting heart rate of
greater than 100 bpm is cause to modify or withhold treatment (Paz).
2. Normal oxygen saturation is 96% to 100% (O'Sullivan, pp. 52-53).
3. Normal blood pressure in an adult is less than 120 mm Hg systolic and less than 80
mm Hg diastolic (O'Sullivan, p. 31). A physical therapist should check with the physician
before initiating exercise if the resting blood pressure is greater than 200 mm Hg
systolic and 105-110 mm Hg diastolic (Goodman). A blood pressure of 160/90 mm Hg is
above normal, but not cause to withhold treatment.
4. Normal respiratory rate in an adult is 12-20 breaths/minute (O'Sullivan, p. 29).

The Ober test is used to assess which of the following structures?
1. Iliopsoas
2. Hamstrings

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