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NR509 Bates Test Bank – Midterm Questions And Answers (2024/2025 Update)

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NR509 Bates Test Bank – Midterm Questions And Answers ( Update)

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Institution
NR 509/ NR509
Course
NR 509/ NR509

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Uploaded on
June 3, 2025
Number of pages
115
Written in
2024/2025
Type
Exam (elaborations)
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Questions & answers

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NR509 Bates Test Bank –
Midterm Questions And
Answers (2024/ 2025 Update)-




A patient presents for evaluation of a sharp, aching chest pain which increases with breathing. Which
anatomic area would you localize the symptom to?



A) Musculoskeletal

B) Reproductive

C) Urinary

D) Endocrine - Answer ✔✔ - A) Musculoskeletal



Chest pain may be due to a musculoskeletal condition, such as costochondritis or

intercostal muscle cramp. This would be worsened by motion of the chest wall. Pleuritic chest pain is
also a sharp chest pain which increases with a deep breath. This type of pain can

occur with inflammation of the pleura from pneumonia or other conditions and pulmonary

embolus.

A patient comes to the emergency room for evaluation of shortness of breath. To which anatomic region
would you assign the symptom?



A) Reproductive

B) Urinary



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,C) Cardiac

D) Hematologic - Answer ✔✔ - C) Cardiac



Cardiac disorders such as congestive heart failure are the most likely on this list to result in shortness of
breath. There are cases within the other categories which may also result

in shortness of breath, such as anemia in the hematologic category, pregnancy in the reproductive

category, or sepsis with UTI in the urinary category.

A patient presents for evaluation of a cough. Which of the following anatomic regions can be
responsible for a cough?



A) Ophthalmologic

B) Auditory

C) Cardiac

D) Endocrine - Answer ✔✔ - C) Cardiac



The cardiac system can cause a cough if the patient has congestive heart failure. This results in fluid
buildup in the lungs, which in turn can cause a cough that produces pink,

frothy sputum. A foreign body in the ear may also cause a cough by stimulating Arnold's branch of the
vagus nerve, but this is less likely to be seen clinically than heart failure.

A 22-year-old advertising copywriter presents for evaluation of joint pain. The pain is new,

located in the wrists and fingers bilaterally, with some subjective fever. The patient denies a

rash; she also denies recent travel or camping activities. She has a family history significant for

rheumatoid arthritis. Based on this information, which of the following pathologic processes

would be the most correct?



A) Infectious

B) Inflammatory



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,C) Hematologic

D) Traumatic - Answer ✔✔ - B) Inflammatory



The description is most consistent with an inflammatory process, although all the other etiologies should
be considered. Lyme disease is an infection which commonly causes

arthritis, hemophilia is a hematologic condition which can cause bleeding in the joints, and trauma can
obviously cause joint pain.

A 47-year-old contractor presents for evaluation of neck pain, which has been intermittent for several
years. He normally takes over-the-counter medications to ease the pain, but this time they haven't
worked as well and he still has discomfort. He recently wallpapered the entire second floor in his house,
which caused him great discomfort. The pain resolved with rest. He denies fever, chills, rash, upper
respiratory symptoms, trauma, or injury to the neck. Based on this description, what is the most likely
pathologic process?



A) Infectious

B) Neoplastic

C) Degenerative

D) Traumatic - Answer ✔✔ - C) Degenerative



The description is most consistent with degenerative arthritis in the neck. The

patient has had intermittent symptoms and the questions asked to elicit pertinent negative and

positive findings are negative for infectious, traumatic, or neoplastic disease.

A 15-year-old high school sophomore comes to the clinic for evaluation of a 3-week history

of sneezing; itchy, watery eyes; clear nasal discharge; ear pain; and nonproductive cough. Which

is the most likely pathologic process?



A) Infection

B) Inflammation



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, C) Allergic

D) Vascular - Answer ✔✔ - C) Allergic



This description is most consistent with allergic rhinitis.

A 19-year old-college student presents to the emergency room with fever, headache, and

neck pain/stiffness. She is concerned about the possibility of meningococcal meningitis.

Several of her dorm mates have been vaccinated, but she hasn't been. Which of the following

physical examination descriptions is most consistent with meningitis?



A) Head is normocephalic and atraumatic, fundi with sharp discs, neck supple with full range

of motion

B) Head is normocephalic and atraumatic, fundi with sharp discs, neck with paraspinous

muscle spasm and limited range of motion to the right

C) Head is normocephalic and atraumatic, fundi with blurred disc margins, neck tender to

palpation, unable to perform range of motion

D) Head is normocephalic and atraumatic, fundi with blurred disc margins, neck supple with

full range of motion - Answer ✔✔ - C) Head is normocephalic and atraumatic, fundi with blurred disc
margins, neck tender to

palpation, unable to perform range of motion



Blurred disc margins are consistent with papilledema, and neck tenderness and lack of range of motion
are consistent with neck stiffness, which in this scenario is likely to be caused

by meningeal inflammation. Kernig's and Brudzinski's signs are also helpful in testing for meningeal
irritation on exam.

A 37-year-old nurse comes for evaluation of colicky right upper quadrant abdominal pain. The pain is
associated with nausea and vomiting and occurs 1 to 2 hours after eating greasy foods. Which one of the
following physical examination descriptions would be most consistent with the diagnosis of
cholecystitis?


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