RECENT VERSION|COMPREHENSIVE
QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED
ANSWERS/ACCURATE SOLUTIONS|ALREADY
GRADED A+|GET IT 100% CORRECT.
A patient presents to an emergency room
complaining of palpitations and irregular heartbeat.
The advanced practice registered nurse (APRN)
places the patient on a cardiac monitor and
observes atrial fibrillation. The APRN orders
dofetilide.
How should the APRN recommend this medication
be taken? - Answer✅️
☑️ YES With food or an empty
stomach
A 70-year-old male calls a clinic complaining of
chest pain that started after having sexual activity.
He took sildenafil 50 mg about eight hours ago. He
has nitroglycerin 0.3 mg on hand.
,How should the advanced practice registered nurse
respond? - Answer✅️ ☑️Do not take the
nitroglycerin and call 911
Taking the medications together can cause a
serious drop in blood pressure leading to
cardiovascular collapse.
A patient diagnosed with bipolar disorder who is in
a mental health clinic is discussing the possibility
of beginning lithium with an advanced practice
registered nurse (APRN). The patient expresses
understanding and wishes to proceed with
treatment. The APRN explains to the patient that
this medication requires specific lab monitoring
and wants to draw baseline labs. The patient asks
why the test is needed.
Which explanation should the APRN provide to this
patient? - Answer✅️☑️ A baseline blood urea
nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine (CREA) level needs
to be drawn to assess kidney function prior to
treatment.
,This drug can cause decreased renal function, and
a baseline should be drawn for future comparison.
An advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) is
reviewing the medications that will be commonly
experienced with a new nurse to determine
whether the drugs are safe for the patients. The
new nurse is given a scenario where a patient is
being prescribed sildenafil 25 mg po prn, a
prototype drug for erectile dysfunction.
Which patient may take this drug safely? -
Answer✅️ ☑️YES A 54-year-male with a medical
history of hypertension, mild eczema, and previous
history of a urolithiasis where all is well controlled
and there are no current complications
A 30-year-old patient presents to a primary care
clinic with a history of anxiety. The advanced
practice registered nurse reviews the mechanism
of action by which many neuropharmacological
agents act and decides to prescribe citalopram.
What is the mechanism of action of this
medication? - Answer✅️ ☑️
YES Influences receptor
activity on target cells
, Correct! This medication influences the activity in
the receptors, and it targets cells.
A patient is admitted with a diagnosis of
Huntington disease. On admission, the patient
exhibits uncontrolled twitching, difficulty walking,
trouble swallowing, confusion, and memory loss.
The advanced practice registered nurse (APRN)
prescribes baclofen.
What is the mechanism of action of this
medication? - Answer✅️☑️ NO Modulates the effects
of glutamate at NMDA receptors
YES Inhibits neurotransmitter GABA
NO Halts the breakdown of acetylcholine by
acetylcholinesterase
Alters the synthesis and release of norepinephrine,
serotonin, and dopamine
Incorrect. Cholinesterase inhibitors prevent the
breakdown of acetylcholine by
acetylcholinesterase. They are used in patients
with Alzheimer's.
Correct! Huntington's disease involves a deficiency
of the neurotransmitters acetylcholine and y-