ATLS 10th Edition Pre-Test Exam PRACTICE
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS
2025 (VERIFIED ANSWERS) LATEST UPDATE
1. What is the first priority in the initial assessment of a trauma patient?
a) Obtain history
b) Perform a detailed physical exam
c) Airway maintenance with cervical spine protection
d) Control hemorrhage
Answer: c) Airway maintenance with cervical spine protection
Rationale: The primary survey follows the ABCDE approach. Airway with cervical
spine protection is the first priority to prevent hypoxia and further spinal injury.
2. In the “ABCDE” approach to trauma care, what does "C" stand for?
a) Circulation with hemorrhage control
b) Chest examination
c) Compression of bleeding sites
d) Consciousness evaluation
Answer: a) Circulation with hemorrhage control
Rationale: After securing airway and breathing, circulation and hemorrhage
control are critical to prevent shock.
3. What is the correct treatment for a tension pneumothorax in the prehospital
or initial hospital setting?
,a) Administer oxygen and monitor
b) Immediate needle decompression followed by chest tube placement
c) Intubate and mechanically ventilate
d) Observation and serial chest x-rays
Answer: b) Immediate needle decompression followed by chest tube placement
Rationale: Tension pneumothorax is life-threatening and requires prompt needle
decompression to relieve pressure.
4. Which of the following is the best indicator of adequate ventilation in a
trauma patient?
a) Pulse oximetry reading of 90%
b) End-tidal CO2 monitoring
c) Respiratory rate
d) Auscultation of breath sounds
Answer: b) End-tidal CO2 monitoring
Rationale: End-tidal CO2 provides a reliable, continuous measurement of
ventilation effectiveness.
5. When should cervical spine immobilization be removed in a trauma patient?
a) After the primary survey is completed
b) Once the patient is alert and oriented
c) Only after radiologic studies exclude cervical spine injury
d) After the patient is intubated
Answer: c) Only after radiologic studies exclude cervical spine injury
Rationale: Cervical spine precautions must be maintained until injury is
definitively ruled out.
6. The "golden hour" in trauma care refers to:
a) The time it takes to perform a primary survey
b) The first 60 minutes after injury where treatment has the greatest impact
,c) The window for controlling bleeding and preventing shock
d) The time for transporting the patient to definitive care
Answer: b) The first 60 minutes after injury where treatment has the greatest
impact
Rationale: Early intervention in the first hour improves survival chances.
7. What is the most common cause of preventable death in trauma?
a) Brain injury
b) Airway obstruction
c) Hemorrhagic shock
d) Spinal cord injury
Answer: b) Airway obstruction
Rationale: Maintaining a patent airway is crucial; obstruction is a leading cause of
preventable death.
8. In the primary survey, if a patient is found to have inadequate breathing with
poor oxygenation, what is the next step?
a) Provide supplemental oxygen by mask
b) Intubate and mechanically ventilate
c) Perform chest tube insertion immediately
d) Place patient in Trendelenburg position
Answer: b) Intubate and mechanically ventilate
Rationale: Inadequate breathing requires securing airway and ventilation support
promptly.
9. Which fluid is preferred for initial resuscitation in trauma patients with
hemorrhagic shock?
a) Whole blood
b) Dextrose 5% in water
c) Isotonic crystalloid (e.g., normal saline or lactated Ringer’s)
d) Hypertonic saline
, Answer: c) Isotonic crystalloid (e.g., normal saline or lactated Ringer’s)
Rationale: Crystalloids are first-line fluids for volume resuscitation until blood
products are available.
10. Which injury is MOST likely to cause pericardial tamponade?
a) Flail chest
b) Pulmonary contusion
c) Penetrating injury to the chest
d) Blunt abdominal trauma
Answer: c) Penetrating injury to the chest
Rationale: Penetrating chest trauma can cause blood to accumulate in the
pericardial sac, compressing the heart.
11. In trauma patients, a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score less than 8 indicates:
a) Mild brain injury
b) Moderate brain injury
c) Severe brain injury and need for airway protection
d) No brain injury
Answer: c) Severe brain injury and need for airway protection
Rationale: A GCS below 8 usually requires intubation to secure the airway.
12. The FAST exam is primarily used to:
a) Evaluate bone fractures
b) Detect free fluid in the abdomen or pericardium
c) Assess spinal injuries
d) Diagnose head trauma
Answer: b) Detect free fluid in the abdomen or pericardium
Rationale: FAST (Focused Assessment with Sonography for Trauma) quickly
identifies internal bleeding.
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS
2025 (VERIFIED ANSWERS) LATEST UPDATE
1. What is the first priority in the initial assessment of a trauma patient?
a) Obtain history
b) Perform a detailed physical exam
c) Airway maintenance with cervical spine protection
d) Control hemorrhage
Answer: c) Airway maintenance with cervical spine protection
Rationale: The primary survey follows the ABCDE approach. Airway with cervical
spine protection is the first priority to prevent hypoxia and further spinal injury.
2. In the “ABCDE” approach to trauma care, what does "C" stand for?
a) Circulation with hemorrhage control
b) Chest examination
c) Compression of bleeding sites
d) Consciousness evaluation
Answer: a) Circulation with hemorrhage control
Rationale: After securing airway and breathing, circulation and hemorrhage
control are critical to prevent shock.
3. What is the correct treatment for a tension pneumothorax in the prehospital
or initial hospital setting?
,a) Administer oxygen and monitor
b) Immediate needle decompression followed by chest tube placement
c) Intubate and mechanically ventilate
d) Observation and serial chest x-rays
Answer: b) Immediate needle decompression followed by chest tube placement
Rationale: Tension pneumothorax is life-threatening and requires prompt needle
decompression to relieve pressure.
4. Which of the following is the best indicator of adequate ventilation in a
trauma patient?
a) Pulse oximetry reading of 90%
b) End-tidal CO2 monitoring
c) Respiratory rate
d) Auscultation of breath sounds
Answer: b) End-tidal CO2 monitoring
Rationale: End-tidal CO2 provides a reliable, continuous measurement of
ventilation effectiveness.
5. When should cervical spine immobilization be removed in a trauma patient?
a) After the primary survey is completed
b) Once the patient is alert and oriented
c) Only after radiologic studies exclude cervical spine injury
d) After the patient is intubated
Answer: c) Only after radiologic studies exclude cervical spine injury
Rationale: Cervical spine precautions must be maintained until injury is
definitively ruled out.
6. The "golden hour" in trauma care refers to:
a) The time it takes to perform a primary survey
b) The first 60 minutes after injury where treatment has the greatest impact
,c) The window for controlling bleeding and preventing shock
d) The time for transporting the patient to definitive care
Answer: b) The first 60 minutes after injury where treatment has the greatest
impact
Rationale: Early intervention in the first hour improves survival chances.
7. What is the most common cause of preventable death in trauma?
a) Brain injury
b) Airway obstruction
c) Hemorrhagic shock
d) Spinal cord injury
Answer: b) Airway obstruction
Rationale: Maintaining a patent airway is crucial; obstruction is a leading cause of
preventable death.
8. In the primary survey, if a patient is found to have inadequate breathing with
poor oxygenation, what is the next step?
a) Provide supplemental oxygen by mask
b) Intubate and mechanically ventilate
c) Perform chest tube insertion immediately
d) Place patient in Trendelenburg position
Answer: b) Intubate and mechanically ventilate
Rationale: Inadequate breathing requires securing airway and ventilation support
promptly.
9. Which fluid is preferred for initial resuscitation in trauma patients with
hemorrhagic shock?
a) Whole blood
b) Dextrose 5% in water
c) Isotonic crystalloid (e.g., normal saline or lactated Ringer’s)
d) Hypertonic saline
, Answer: c) Isotonic crystalloid (e.g., normal saline or lactated Ringer’s)
Rationale: Crystalloids are first-line fluids for volume resuscitation until blood
products are available.
10. Which injury is MOST likely to cause pericardial tamponade?
a) Flail chest
b) Pulmonary contusion
c) Penetrating injury to the chest
d) Blunt abdominal trauma
Answer: c) Penetrating injury to the chest
Rationale: Penetrating chest trauma can cause blood to accumulate in the
pericardial sac, compressing the heart.
11. In trauma patients, a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score less than 8 indicates:
a) Mild brain injury
b) Moderate brain injury
c) Severe brain injury and need for airway protection
d) No brain injury
Answer: c) Severe brain injury and need for airway protection
Rationale: A GCS below 8 usually requires intubation to secure the airway.
12. The FAST exam is primarily used to:
a) Evaluate bone fractures
b) Detect free fluid in the abdomen or pericardium
c) Assess spinal injuries
d) Diagnose head trauma
Answer: b) Detect free fluid in the abdomen or pericardium
Rationale: FAST (Focused Assessment with Sonography for Trauma) quickly
identifies internal bleeding.
