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EFMB Written Test Study Guide EXAM 2025–2026 Accurate Real Exam Questions and Verified Correct Answers

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This document provides a fully updated study guide for the EFMB (Expert Field Medical Badge) Written Test, aligned with the 2025–2026 evaluation standards. It features accurate and verified exam questions with correct answers, covering critical topics such as Tactical Combat Casualty Care (TCCC), evacuation procedures, medical evacuation (MEDEVAC/CASEVAC) protocols, triage, preventive medicine, field sanitation, and operational medical logistics. Ideal for Active Duty, Reserve, and National Guard medical personnel preparing for EFMB qualification.

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  • operational field logi

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EFMB Written Test Study Guide EXAM 2025–2026
Accurate Real Exam Questions and Verified Correct
Answers
Section 1 - Radiology: Imaging Trauma Patients in a Deployed Setting

The standard FAST examination is focused on evaluating for the presence of
__________ in certain areas of the body. - answer>>>Free Intraperitoneal Fluid



When performing a FAST examination on a patient, you inspect the right upper
quadrant. You are inspecting between which two (2) organs? - answer>>>Liver & Kidney



The initial radiographic evaluation of a trauma patient begins with supine Anterior-
Posterior (AP) chest and pelvis radiographs taken in the trauma bay usually with a(n)
__________. - answer>>>portable x-ray machine



T/F: Computed Tomography scanning has been largely replaced by Cervical Spine
Radiographic Evaluation (CSRE) and should only be performed when CSRE is unavailable.
- answer>>>FALSE. Cervical Spine Radiographic Evaluation (CSRE) has been largely
replaced by Computed Tomography (CT) and should only be performed when a CT is
unavailable.



What is the lowest level of care equipped with a Computed Tomography (CT) Scanner? -
answer>>>Role 3



What is the lowest level of care equipped with a portable x-ray machine? -
answer>>>Role 2



Members of the trauma team should have __________ aprons and thyroid shields
available near the trauma bay for radiation safety. - answer>>>lead

,Distance is also protective from radiation exposure. If feasible based on the patient's
condition, any personnel without lead shielding should move a short distance away from
the x-ray unit. The recommended minimal distance is __________ feet. - answer>>>Six
(6)



While the FAST scan has been validated only in hemodynamically unstable blunt trauma
patients, it has become a standard tool in the trauma bay and Emergency Department
(ED) in most trauma patients. FAST stands for __________. - answer>>>Focused
Abdominal Sonographic Assessment for Trauma



FAST in combat trauma has a sensitivity of only 56% and and specificity of __________. -
answer>>>98%



T/F: The FAST exam remains the most sensitive test for hollow viscus injury and
mesenteric injury. - answer>>>FALSE. Diagnostic Peritoneal Lavage (DPL) remains the
most sensitive test for hollow viscus injury and mesenteric injury.



T/F: At the Role 3, properly trained providers including radiologists, surgeons, and
emergency physicians, can perform and interpret FAST scans in the emergency
department on a hand held portable US device. - answer>>>TRUE



A FAST examination is performed with a portable hand-held machine most commonly
using a standard 3-7 MHz curved array __________ probe. - answer>>>Ultra Sound (US)



When performing a FAST examination on a patient, you inspect the left upper quadrant.
You are inspecting between which two (2) organs? - answer>>>Spleen & Kidney



An 18g __________ IV is typically desired for Computed Tomography IV access. -
answer>>>antecubital

,T/F: The goal of Computed Tomography (CT) contrast injection is to provide concurrent
solid organ enhancement, arterial enhancement, and pulmonary arterial. -
answer>>>TRUE



T/F: When performing Computed Tomography (CT) scan on a Military Working Dog,
utilize a scanning protocol based on the adult settings to include the doses of and rates
of contrast administration. - answer>>>FALSE. Utilize a scanning protocol based on the
pediatric settings to include the doses of and rates of contrast administration.



T/F: All patients evacuated through casualty evacuation should have images sent
electronically ahead of time as well as have a CD created to send with the patient as a
backup. - answer>>>TRUE



T/F: Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) is widely used in theater, as its utility in the
acute management of combat trauma was extensively established during Operation
Enduring Freedom. - answer>>>FALSE. While Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) has
been deployed to theater in the past, its utility in the acute management of combat
trauma has not been established.



All trauma patients arriving at a Role __________ hospital will receive proper and
expeditious radiologic screening of injuries. - answer>>>3



Section 2: Aural Blast Injury Acoustic Trauma & Hearing Loss - answer>>>-



T/F: Patients exposed to hazardous noise are only at risk for aural trauma. -
answer>>>FALSE. Service Members exposed to hazardous noise is impact noise or noise
greater than 140 dB are at high risk for acoustic trauma and subsequent hearing loss.
Patients exposed to blasts are at risk for both aural and acoustic trauma.



The symptoms of acoustic trauma are: - answer>>>1. Hearing Loss

2. Tinnitus (Ringing in the Ear)

3. Aural Fullness

, 4. Recruitment (Ear Pain with Loud Noise)

5. Difficulty Localizing Sounds

6. Difficulty Hearing in a Noisy Background

7. Vertigo



"H-TARDD-V"



Acoustic trauma may result in sensorineural hearing loss (SNHL) that is either
__________ or __________. - answer>>>temporary (temporary threshold shift, TTS) or
permanent (permanent threshold shift, PTS)



The ear, specifically the __________, is the most sensitive organ to primary blast injury
(PBI). - answer>>>tympanic membrane (TM)



T/F: the smaller the size of the tympanic membrane perforation, the greater the
likelihood is of spontaneous closure. - answer>>>TRUE



The majority of tympanic membrane perforations that close spontaneously do so within
the first __________ after injury. - answer>>>8 weeks



Acute management of intratemporal facial nerve injury is to provide objective
documentation of facial movement using the __________ grading scale. -
answer>>>House-Brackmann



T/F: For significant facial pareses/paralyses, early administration of steroids must always
be provided regardless of contraindications. - answer>>>FALSE. Early administration of
steroids should be provided if not contraindicated, and referral for management by an
otolaryngologist is indicated.

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