ATI Med Surg Proctored Exam 2025:
Comprehensive Study Guide, Test Strategies, and
Practice Questions for Nursing Students
1. A nurse is caring for a client who experienced a traumatic head injury and has an
intraventricular catheter (Ventriculostomy) for ICP monitoring. The nurse should
monitor the client for which of the following complications related to the
ventriculostomy?
a. Headache
b. Infection
c. Aphasia
d. Hypertension
Correct Answer: b. Infection
Rationale: Infection is a major complication related to ventriculostomy due to the
invasive nature of the catheter and the risk of introducing pathogens into the central
nervous system. Strict aseptic technique is required to prevent meningitis or other
serious infections.
2. A nurse is providing education to a client who is to undergo an EEG the next day.
Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
a. "Do not wash your hair the morning of the procedure."
b. "Try and stay awake most of the night prior to the procedure."
c. "The procedure will take approximately 15 minutes."
d. "You will need to lie flat for 4 hours after the procedure."
Correct Answer: b. "Try and stay awake most of the night prior to the procedure."
Rationale: Staying awake before the EEG increases the likelihood of abnormal
electrical activity being detected during the procedure. The goal is to stress the brain by
sleep deprivation.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is postprocedural following a lumbar puncture
and reports a throbbing headache when sitting upright. Which of the following
actions should the nurse take? Select all that apply.
,a. Use the GCS scale to assess the client
b. Assist the client into a supine position
c. Administer an opioid analgesic
d. Encourage the client to increase PO fluid intake
e. Instruct the client to perform coughing and deep breathing
Correct Answers: b. Assist the client into a supine position, d. Encourage the client to
increase PO fluid intake
Rationale: A headache after a lumbar puncture is often due to CSF leakage, and
positioning the client supine can alleviate the headache. Increasing fluid intake helps
replace lost cerebrospinal fluid, reducing the headache. Analgesics may be used for
pain management, but deep breathing and coughing should be avoided as they may
exacerbate the headache.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has continuous bladder irrigation following a
transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). Which of the following findings
should the nurse report to the provider?
a. Output equal to the instilled irrigate
b. Client reports bladder spasms
c. Viscous urinary output with clots
d. Reports of strong urge to urinate
Correct Answer: c. Viscous urinary output with clots
Rationale: Bright red urine with clots could indicate arterial bleeding, which requires
immediate intervention. Viscous output may suggest clot formation or a potential
blockage that needs attention.
5. A nurse is monitoring the ECG of a client who has hypocalcemia. Which of the
following findings should the nurse expect?
a. Flattened T waves
b. Prolonged QT intervals
c. Shortened QT intervals
d. Widened QRS complexes
Correct Answer: b. Prolonged QT intervals
Rationale: Hypocalcemia is associated with prolonged QT intervals, which can
predispose the client to life-threatening arrhythmias. Other manifestations include
tetany and seizures.
, 6. A nurse is preparing a client who has a brain tumor for a CT scan. Which of the
following factors affects the manner in which the nurse will prepare the client for
the scan?
a. No food or fluids consumed for 4 hours
b. Difficulty recalling recent events
c. Development of hives while eating shrimp
d. Paresthesia in both hands
Correct Answer: c. Development of hives while eating shrimp
Rationale: A shellfish allergy is a contraindication for using contrast media during a CT
scan. If a client has a shellfish allergy, the nurse should consult the provider to
determine an alternative imaging method or preparation.
7. A nurse is preparing an in-service program about the stages of acute kidney
injury. Which of the following pieces of information should the nurse include about
prerenal azotemia?
a. Prerenal azotemia begins prior to the onset of symptoms
b. Interference with renal perfusion causes renal azotemia
c. Prerenal azotemia is irreversible, even in early stages
d. Infections and tumors cause prerenal azotemia
Correct Answer: b. Interference with renal perfusion causes prerenal azotemia
Rationale: Prerenal azotemia occurs due to decreased renal perfusion, often from
conditions like hypovolemic shock or heart failure. It is reversible if treated promptly.
8. A nurse is teaching a client who has CAD about the difference between angina
pectoris and MI. Which of the following should the nurse identify as indications of
MI? Select all that apply.
a. N/V
b. Diaphoresis and dizziness
c. Chest and left arm pain that subsides with rest
d. Anxiety and feelings of doom
e. Bounding pulse and bradypnea
Correct Answers: a. N/V, b. Diaphoresis and dizziness, d. Anxiety and feelings of doom
Comprehensive Study Guide, Test Strategies, and
Practice Questions for Nursing Students
1. A nurse is caring for a client who experienced a traumatic head injury and has an
intraventricular catheter (Ventriculostomy) for ICP monitoring. The nurse should
monitor the client for which of the following complications related to the
ventriculostomy?
a. Headache
b. Infection
c. Aphasia
d. Hypertension
Correct Answer: b. Infection
Rationale: Infection is a major complication related to ventriculostomy due to the
invasive nature of the catheter and the risk of introducing pathogens into the central
nervous system. Strict aseptic technique is required to prevent meningitis or other
serious infections.
2. A nurse is providing education to a client who is to undergo an EEG the next day.
Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
a. "Do not wash your hair the morning of the procedure."
b. "Try and stay awake most of the night prior to the procedure."
c. "The procedure will take approximately 15 minutes."
d. "You will need to lie flat for 4 hours after the procedure."
Correct Answer: b. "Try and stay awake most of the night prior to the procedure."
Rationale: Staying awake before the EEG increases the likelihood of abnormal
electrical activity being detected during the procedure. The goal is to stress the brain by
sleep deprivation.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is postprocedural following a lumbar puncture
and reports a throbbing headache when sitting upright. Which of the following
actions should the nurse take? Select all that apply.
,a. Use the GCS scale to assess the client
b. Assist the client into a supine position
c. Administer an opioid analgesic
d. Encourage the client to increase PO fluid intake
e. Instruct the client to perform coughing and deep breathing
Correct Answers: b. Assist the client into a supine position, d. Encourage the client to
increase PO fluid intake
Rationale: A headache after a lumbar puncture is often due to CSF leakage, and
positioning the client supine can alleviate the headache. Increasing fluid intake helps
replace lost cerebrospinal fluid, reducing the headache. Analgesics may be used for
pain management, but deep breathing and coughing should be avoided as they may
exacerbate the headache.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has continuous bladder irrigation following a
transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). Which of the following findings
should the nurse report to the provider?
a. Output equal to the instilled irrigate
b. Client reports bladder spasms
c. Viscous urinary output with clots
d. Reports of strong urge to urinate
Correct Answer: c. Viscous urinary output with clots
Rationale: Bright red urine with clots could indicate arterial bleeding, which requires
immediate intervention. Viscous output may suggest clot formation or a potential
blockage that needs attention.
5. A nurse is monitoring the ECG of a client who has hypocalcemia. Which of the
following findings should the nurse expect?
a. Flattened T waves
b. Prolonged QT intervals
c. Shortened QT intervals
d. Widened QRS complexes
Correct Answer: b. Prolonged QT intervals
Rationale: Hypocalcemia is associated with prolonged QT intervals, which can
predispose the client to life-threatening arrhythmias. Other manifestations include
tetany and seizures.
, 6. A nurse is preparing a client who has a brain tumor for a CT scan. Which of the
following factors affects the manner in which the nurse will prepare the client for
the scan?
a. No food or fluids consumed for 4 hours
b. Difficulty recalling recent events
c. Development of hives while eating shrimp
d. Paresthesia in both hands
Correct Answer: c. Development of hives while eating shrimp
Rationale: A shellfish allergy is a contraindication for using contrast media during a CT
scan. If a client has a shellfish allergy, the nurse should consult the provider to
determine an alternative imaging method or preparation.
7. A nurse is preparing an in-service program about the stages of acute kidney
injury. Which of the following pieces of information should the nurse include about
prerenal azotemia?
a. Prerenal azotemia begins prior to the onset of symptoms
b. Interference with renal perfusion causes renal azotemia
c. Prerenal azotemia is irreversible, even in early stages
d. Infections and tumors cause prerenal azotemia
Correct Answer: b. Interference with renal perfusion causes prerenal azotemia
Rationale: Prerenal azotemia occurs due to decreased renal perfusion, often from
conditions like hypovolemic shock or heart failure. It is reversible if treated promptly.
8. A nurse is teaching a client who has CAD about the difference between angina
pectoris and MI. Which of the following should the nurse identify as indications of
MI? Select all that apply.
a. N/V
b. Diaphoresis and dizziness
c. Chest and left arm pain that subsides with rest
d. Anxiety and feelings of doom
e. Bounding pulse and bradypnea
Correct Answers: a. N/V, b. Diaphoresis and dizziness, d. Anxiety and feelings of doom
