What is the most common indication for genetic counseling?
A) maternal age
B) drug exposure during the first trimester?
C) Increased maternal alpha-fetoprotein
D)history of previous still birth - correct answers - A) maternal age
The largest group of women who benefit from genetic counseling are those
over the age of 35
The FNP schedules a 38-year-old primigravida (first time pregnancy) for an
amniocentesis at 16 weeks gestation. The FNP would explain that the
purpose of this procedure is to:
E) Assess for the possibility of twins
F) Deterime the biliruben level
G)Perform genetic studies
H)Assess L/S ratio - correct answers - C) Perform
genetic studies This womans age puts her at risk for Down
Syndrome
In the most commonly seen form of Turner Syndrome, how is the X
chromosome affected?
I) Each cell has only one X chromosome?
J) Some cells have two X chromsomes, while the other cells have only
one.
K) Each cell has two X chromsomes, but part of the chromosome is
missing.
L)Each cell has an extra X chromosome - correct answers - A) Each
cell has only one X chromsome
45% of persons with Turner Syndrome have monosomy X meaning there
is only one copy of the X chromosome in each cell.
The FNP is assessing a newborn who is demonstrating a high-pitched
cry, microcephaly, hypertelorism, hypotonia, and a low birth weight.
The FNP would suspect which of the following genetic conditions?
M)Down Syndrome
N)Cri du chat
O)Charge syndrome
P) Duncan disease - correct answers - B) Cri du chat
The clinical symptoms of cri du chat syndrome usually include a high-
pitched cat-like cry, mental retardation, delayed development, distinctive
facial features, small head size (microcephaly), widely-spaced eyes
(hypertelorism), low birth weight and weak muscle tone (hypotonia) in
GRADED
infancy.
A+
,When explaining the types of adaptive immunity, the FNP student is aware
that:
A) Adaptive immunity is a cell-mediated immune response which is
B) Adaptive immunity is the level of immunity that all persons are born with.
C) Adaptive immunity occurs when antibodies are passed from the mother to
the fetus.
D)Adaptive immunity occurs through immunization. - correct answers -
A) Adaptive immunity is a cell-mediated immune response which is carried
out by T cells and B cells.
There are two types of adaptive immunity responses: the cell-mediated
immune response, which is carried out by T cells, and the humoral immune
response, which is controlled by activated B cells and antibodies.
A woman has sustained a traumatic brain injury. She is able to
follow simple commands and can manipulate objects. Which term
describes this state?
E) Coma
F) Persistent vegetative state
G)Minimally conscious
H) Locked-in syndrome - correct answers - C) Minimally conscious
When responses to the environment are seen, the patient is said to be in a
minimally conscious state
Age and the admission of the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) are important
diagnostic factors in TBI. Which GCS score describes a severe TBI?
I) 13-15
J) 12-13
K) 9-12
L) 3-8 - correct answers - D) 3-8
The GCS is scored between 3 and 15, 3 being the worst and 15 the best.
Which term describes recurrent, intrusive thoughts or impulses?
M)Hallucinations
N)Compulsions
O)Obsessions
Obsessions are recurrent and persistent thoughts, impulses, or images
that cause distressing emotions such as anxiety or disgust.
D)Delusions - correct answers - C) Obsessions
Obsessions are recurrent and persistent thoughts, impulses, or images
that cause distressing emotions such as anxiety or disgust.
During an intake interview with a 26-year-old man diagnosed with
generalized anxiety disorder, the FNP might observe what type of behavior?
E) An inflated sense of self
F) Constant relation to future events
G)Inability to concentrate and irritability when questioned
Impaired concentration and irritability are major characteristics of GAD.
GRADED
A+
,D) Nervousness and fear of the FNP during the interview - correct
answers - C) Inability to concentrate and irritability when questioned
Impaired concentration and irritability are major characteristics of GAD.
The FNP would expect which symptoms in a patient with a diagnosis of
schizophrenia?
A) High energy with varying sleep patterns and non stop conversation.
B) Extreme and frequent mood swings with hyperactivity and difficulty
concentrating.
C) Paranoia, delusions, hallucinations, and diminished self-care.
D) Anti-social behavior, manipulative behavior, charisma, and ability to lie
convincingly.
- correct answers - C) Paranoia, delusions, hallucinations, and diminished
self-care. The characteristics of schizophrenia are paranoia, delusions,
tangential thoughts, suspiciousness, disorganized behavior, and
hallucinations.
The FNP is seeing a 10 year old child with complaints of otalgia and
muffled hearing. The mother states the child recently recovered from an
upper respiratory infection. The FNP suspects that this child has:
E) Acute otitis media
F) Acute otitis externa
G)Cholesteatoma
H) Chronic otitis media - correct answers - A) Acute otitis media
The classic presentation of otitis media is otalgia, muffled hearing, popping
sensation, and a recent history of a cold or flare up of allergic rhinitis.
The FNP understands that a potential complication of tonsillar infections,
which is characterized by severe sore throat, difficulty swallowing,
odynophagia, trismus, and a "hot potato" voice; accompanied by fever, chills
and malaise is indicative of:
I) Retropharyngeal abscess
J) Epiglotitis
K) Peritonsillar cellulitis
L)Peritonsillar abscess - correct answers - D) Peritonsillar
abscess Peritonsillar abscess is characterized by severe sore throat,
pain or difficulty swallowing, jaw muscle spasms, and a hot potato
voice.
A young adult female patient presents to the clinic with complaints of
nervousness, tremulousness, palpitations, heat intolerance, fatigue, weight
loss, and polyphagia. After a complete history and physical, along with thyroid
function tests, the FNP makes the diagnosis of hyperthyroidism, recognizing
that the most common cause of this condition is:
M)Thyroid cancer
N)Graves' disease
O)Pituitary adenoma
GRADED
P) Postpartum thyroiditis - correct answers - B) Graves' disease
A+
Graves' disease, an autoimmune condition also known as "diffuse toxic
goiter" is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism in this age group.
, During an evaluation of a patient with prediabetes, the FNP identifies which
finding in the patient's objective data that is associated with the increasing
insulin resistance?
A) Triglycerides > 150mg/dL
B) HDL > 40 mg/dL in men and >50 mg/dL in women
C) BP < 130/85 mm Hg
D) FBS < 110 mg/dL - correct answers - A) Triglycerides > 150mg/dL
Improper use of glucose increases the release of free fatty acids which
elevates triglycerides.
When prescribing a meal plan for the patient with type 2 diabetes, the FNP
tells the patient that the macronutrient with the most influence on the
postprandial glucose level is:
E) Fiber
F) Fat
G)Protein
H) Carbohydrate - correct answers - D) Carbohydrate
Carbohydrate is a macronutrient with the greatest impact on the
postprandial glucose levels.
Which of the following characteristics applies to type 1 diabetes mellitus?
I) Significant hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis result from a lack of insulin.
J)This condition is commonly diagnoses on routine examination or work-
up for other health problems.
K) Initial response to oral sulfonylureas is usually favorable.
L)Insulin resistance is a significant part of the diease. - correct
answers - A) Significant hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis result from a
lack of insulin.
Type 1 DM is associated with beta cell destruction leading to absolute insulin
deficiency resulting in significant hyperglycemia and potential for
ketoacidosis.
Which of the following characteristics applies to type 2 diabetes mellitus?
M)Major risk factors are heredity and obesity
N)Pear-shaped body type is commonly found
O)Exogenous insulin is needed for control of the disease
P)Physical activity increases insulin resistance - correct answers - A)
Major risk factors are heredity and obesity
Risk factors of type 2 DM include increasing age, obesity, race, and
genetics.
Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for endometrial cancer?
Q)Obesity
R) Oral contraceptive use
S) Unopposed estrogen use
T)Advancing age, greater than 50 years - correct answers - B) Oral
GRADED
contraceptive use
A+
A) maternal age
B) drug exposure during the first trimester?
C) Increased maternal alpha-fetoprotein
D)history of previous still birth - correct answers - A) maternal age
The largest group of women who benefit from genetic counseling are those
over the age of 35
The FNP schedules a 38-year-old primigravida (first time pregnancy) for an
amniocentesis at 16 weeks gestation. The FNP would explain that the
purpose of this procedure is to:
E) Assess for the possibility of twins
F) Deterime the biliruben level
G)Perform genetic studies
H)Assess L/S ratio - correct answers - C) Perform
genetic studies This womans age puts her at risk for Down
Syndrome
In the most commonly seen form of Turner Syndrome, how is the X
chromosome affected?
I) Each cell has only one X chromosome?
J) Some cells have two X chromsomes, while the other cells have only
one.
K) Each cell has two X chromsomes, but part of the chromosome is
missing.
L)Each cell has an extra X chromosome - correct answers - A) Each
cell has only one X chromsome
45% of persons with Turner Syndrome have monosomy X meaning there
is only one copy of the X chromosome in each cell.
The FNP is assessing a newborn who is demonstrating a high-pitched
cry, microcephaly, hypertelorism, hypotonia, and a low birth weight.
The FNP would suspect which of the following genetic conditions?
M)Down Syndrome
N)Cri du chat
O)Charge syndrome
P) Duncan disease - correct answers - B) Cri du chat
The clinical symptoms of cri du chat syndrome usually include a high-
pitched cat-like cry, mental retardation, delayed development, distinctive
facial features, small head size (microcephaly), widely-spaced eyes
(hypertelorism), low birth weight and weak muscle tone (hypotonia) in
GRADED
infancy.
A+
,When explaining the types of adaptive immunity, the FNP student is aware
that:
A) Adaptive immunity is a cell-mediated immune response which is
B) Adaptive immunity is the level of immunity that all persons are born with.
C) Adaptive immunity occurs when antibodies are passed from the mother to
the fetus.
D)Adaptive immunity occurs through immunization. - correct answers -
A) Adaptive immunity is a cell-mediated immune response which is carried
out by T cells and B cells.
There are two types of adaptive immunity responses: the cell-mediated
immune response, which is carried out by T cells, and the humoral immune
response, which is controlled by activated B cells and antibodies.
A woman has sustained a traumatic brain injury. She is able to
follow simple commands and can manipulate objects. Which term
describes this state?
E) Coma
F) Persistent vegetative state
G)Minimally conscious
H) Locked-in syndrome - correct answers - C) Minimally conscious
When responses to the environment are seen, the patient is said to be in a
minimally conscious state
Age and the admission of the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) are important
diagnostic factors in TBI. Which GCS score describes a severe TBI?
I) 13-15
J) 12-13
K) 9-12
L) 3-8 - correct answers - D) 3-8
The GCS is scored between 3 and 15, 3 being the worst and 15 the best.
Which term describes recurrent, intrusive thoughts or impulses?
M)Hallucinations
N)Compulsions
O)Obsessions
Obsessions are recurrent and persistent thoughts, impulses, or images
that cause distressing emotions such as anxiety or disgust.
D)Delusions - correct answers - C) Obsessions
Obsessions are recurrent and persistent thoughts, impulses, or images
that cause distressing emotions such as anxiety or disgust.
During an intake interview with a 26-year-old man diagnosed with
generalized anxiety disorder, the FNP might observe what type of behavior?
E) An inflated sense of self
F) Constant relation to future events
G)Inability to concentrate and irritability when questioned
Impaired concentration and irritability are major characteristics of GAD.
GRADED
A+
,D) Nervousness and fear of the FNP during the interview - correct
answers - C) Inability to concentrate and irritability when questioned
Impaired concentration and irritability are major characteristics of GAD.
The FNP would expect which symptoms in a patient with a diagnosis of
schizophrenia?
A) High energy with varying sleep patterns and non stop conversation.
B) Extreme and frequent mood swings with hyperactivity and difficulty
concentrating.
C) Paranoia, delusions, hallucinations, and diminished self-care.
D) Anti-social behavior, manipulative behavior, charisma, and ability to lie
convincingly.
- correct answers - C) Paranoia, delusions, hallucinations, and diminished
self-care. The characteristics of schizophrenia are paranoia, delusions,
tangential thoughts, suspiciousness, disorganized behavior, and
hallucinations.
The FNP is seeing a 10 year old child with complaints of otalgia and
muffled hearing. The mother states the child recently recovered from an
upper respiratory infection. The FNP suspects that this child has:
E) Acute otitis media
F) Acute otitis externa
G)Cholesteatoma
H) Chronic otitis media - correct answers - A) Acute otitis media
The classic presentation of otitis media is otalgia, muffled hearing, popping
sensation, and a recent history of a cold or flare up of allergic rhinitis.
The FNP understands that a potential complication of tonsillar infections,
which is characterized by severe sore throat, difficulty swallowing,
odynophagia, trismus, and a "hot potato" voice; accompanied by fever, chills
and malaise is indicative of:
I) Retropharyngeal abscess
J) Epiglotitis
K) Peritonsillar cellulitis
L)Peritonsillar abscess - correct answers - D) Peritonsillar
abscess Peritonsillar abscess is characterized by severe sore throat,
pain or difficulty swallowing, jaw muscle spasms, and a hot potato
voice.
A young adult female patient presents to the clinic with complaints of
nervousness, tremulousness, palpitations, heat intolerance, fatigue, weight
loss, and polyphagia. After a complete history and physical, along with thyroid
function tests, the FNP makes the diagnosis of hyperthyroidism, recognizing
that the most common cause of this condition is:
M)Thyroid cancer
N)Graves' disease
O)Pituitary adenoma
GRADED
P) Postpartum thyroiditis - correct answers - B) Graves' disease
A+
Graves' disease, an autoimmune condition also known as "diffuse toxic
goiter" is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism in this age group.
, During an evaluation of a patient with prediabetes, the FNP identifies which
finding in the patient's objective data that is associated with the increasing
insulin resistance?
A) Triglycerides > 150mg/dL
B) HDL > 40 mg/dL in men and >50 mg/dL in women
C) BP < 130/85 mm Hg
D) FBS < 110 mg/dL - correct answers - A) Triglycerides > 150mg/dL
Improper use of glucose increases the release of free fatty acids which
elevates triglycerides.
When prescribing a meal plan for the patient with type 2 diabetes, the FNP
tells the patient that the macronutrient with the most influence on the
postprandial glucose level is:
E) Fiber
F) Fat
G)Protein
H) Carbohydrate - correct answers - D) Carbohydrate
Carbohydrate is a macronutrient with the greatest impact on the
postprandial glucose levels.
Which of the following characteristics applies to type 1 diabetes mellitus?
I) Significant hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis result from a lack of insulin.
J)This condition is commonly diagnoses on routine examination or work-
up for other health problems.
K) Initial response to oral sulfonylureas is usually favorable.
L)Insulin resistance is a significant part of the diease. - correct
answers - A) Significant hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis result from a
lack of insulin.
Type 1 DM is associated with beta cell destruction leading to absolute insulin
deficiency resulting in significant hyperglycemia and potential for
ketoacidosis.
Which of the following characteristics applies to type 2 diabetes mellitus?
M)Major risk factors are heredity and obesity
N)Pear-shaped body type is commonly found
O)Exogenous insulin is needed for control of the disease
P)Physical activity increases insulin resistance - correct answers - A)
Major risk factors are heredity and obesity
Risk factors of type 2 DM include increasing age, obesity, race, and
genetics.
Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for endometrial cancer?
Q)Obesity
R) Oral contraceptive use
S) Unopposed estrogen use
T)Advancing age, greater than 50 years - correct answers - B) Oral
GRADED
contraceptive use
A+
