Azusa Pacific University GNRS 610 | ELM Pathophysiology quizzes; Answered Correctly Updated Fall 2025.

Quiz #1 Genetic Disease Question 1 What type of genetic disorder is cystic fibrosis? ● X-linked dominant ● Autosomal dominant ● Autosomal recessive ● X-linked recessive Question 2 When traits are conferred in an individual by variations in a single gene they are known as traits ● Complex ● Variant ● Recessive ● dominant Question 3 Huntington's disease is an autosomal dominant genetic disorder. Which option best describes what most likely happens for an offspring to develop this condition? ● One of the parents has to have Huntington disease in order to pass it to the offspring. ● Both parents, who are healthy carriers of the mutated gene, each pass one mutated gene in order for the offspring to develop the disease ● Both parents must have Huntington disease for the offspring to develop it. ● One parent who does not have the disease, but is a carrier of the mutated gene, has to pass the gene to the offspring Question 4 Hemophilia A is a deficiency in which clotting factor? ● Factor X ● Thrombin ● Factor III ● Factor VIII Question 5 Which Chromosome is the Huntington (HTT) Gene located on? ● Chromosome 2 ● Chromosome 7 ● X Chromosome ● Chromosome 4 1. When is a person with HIV diagnosed with AIDS? ● When they test positive for HIV ● CD4 count < 200 cells/mm3 ● CD4 count > 200 cells/mm3 ● When they become symptomatic after a positive HIV test 2. Which of the following is NOT a mode of transmission for HIV? ● Sharing needles ● Saliva ● Sexual contact ● Mother to baby 3. What receptor does HIV need to bind onto a cell? ● Integrase ● COQ10 ● Reverse Transcriptase ● CD4 4. What are the primary target cells for HIV? ● Only CD8+ cytotoxic T cells ● CD8+ cytotoxic T cells, macrophages, and dendritic cells ● CD4+ helper T cells, macrophages, and dendritic cells ● Only CD4+ helper T cells 5. About how long after initial infection will acute symptoms manifest? ● 3 to 4 days ● One year ● 2 to 4 weeks ● Immediately 1. The hallmark of most infectious diseases is: ● Cough ● Fever ● Itching ● Rash 2. After exposure to an antigen in a vaccine, what type of immunity will you gain? ● Artificial Active immunity ● Innate immunity ● Hyperactive immunity ● Artificial Passive immunity 3. What are opportunistic microorganisms? ● A bacterium, virus, protozoan or fungus that are that help protect their host by fighting bacteria. ● A bacterium, virus, protozoan or fungus that keep other microorganisms from entering the body. ● A bacterium, virus, protozoan or fungus that takes advantage of certain opportunities to cause disease. ● A bacterium, virus, protozoan or fungus, that live symbiotically with their host. 4. Choose the right answer that fits passive immunity ● It is only acquired artificially ● Provides protection for a long time ● It is only acquired naturally ● Provides protection for a short time 5. Which of the following statements is true about Post Exposure Prophylaxis (PEP) ● It can be taken months after exposure ● It should be taken regularly ● It is not a substitute for regular prevention ● It should not be used in emergency situations 1. Which osteoporosis bone scan diagnosis only osteoporosis and not fractures? ● X-ray ● DEXA ● MRI ● Ultrasound 2. Which is NOT a common sign of osteoporosis? ● Back pain ● Kyphosis ● Rib fractures ● Muscle weakness 3. Regarding Myasthenia Gravis, over 50% of cases include symptoms involving muscles of the ……….. ● Throat ● Eye ● Neck ● Face 4. Which type of exercise is NOT helpful in reducing the risk of osteoporosis? ● Swimming ● Weightlifting ● Running ● Hiking 5. What test can help to diagnose a patient with Myasthenia Gravis? ● ELISA ● McBurney’s Test ● Tensilon Test ● Tuberculin skin test 1.