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PN VATI Comprehensive Predictor Exam Version 2 Questions And Correct Answers Plus Rationales 2025 Guaranteed Pass|LATEST UPDATE

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PN VATI Comprehensive Predictor Exam Version 2 Questions And Correct Answers Plus Rationales 2025 Guaranteed Pass|LATEST UPDATE

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PN VATI Comprehensive Predictor
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PN VATI Comprehensive Predictor

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May 14, 2025
Number of pages
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PN VATI Comprehensive Predictor Exam
Version 2 Questions And Correct Answers Plus
Rationales 2025 Guaranteed Pass|LATEST
UPDATE




Question 1:
A practical nurse (PN) is caring for a client who is postoperative following
abdominal surgery. Which finding requires immediate notification of the
registered nurse (RN) or surgeon?
a) Pain rated as 5 on a 0-10 scale at the incision site.
b) Serosanguineous drainage noted on the surgical dressing.
c) Absent bowel sounds 12 hours post-surgery.
d) Rigid, board-like abdomen upon palpation.


Answer: d) Rigid, board-like abdomen upon palpation.
Rationale: A rigid, board-like abdomen is a classic sign of peritonitis, a serious
complication involving inflammation/infection of the abdominal lining, which
requires immediate medical intervention. While pain, some drainage, and
temporarily absent bowel sounds are expected post-operatively, peritonitis is
life-threatening.


Question 2:

,A PN is preparing to administer insulin lispro (Humalog) to a client with type 1
diabetes mellitus. When should the PN administer this medication?
a) 30-60 minutes before the meal.
b) 15 minutes before the meal or immediately after.
c) Only when the blood glucose level is above 200 mg/dL.
d) At bedtime to cover basal insulin needs.


Answer: b) 15 minutes before the meal or immediately after.
Rationale: Insulin lispro is a rapid-acting insulin. Its onset is within 15 minutes,
peak is 1-2 hours, and duration is 3-4 hours. It should be given close to mealtime
to cover the blood glucose rise from food intake. Administering it too early could
cause hypoglycemia before the meal arrives.


Question 3:
The PN is caring for an elderly client admitted with dehydration. Which finding
best indicates that the client's hydration status is improving?
a) Decreased skin turgor.
b) Urine output of 40 mL/hour.
c) Heart rate of 110 beats/minute.
d) Dry oral mucous membranes.


Answer: b) Urine output of 40 mL/hour.
Rationale: Adequate urine output (generally considered 30 mL/hour or more for
an adult) is a key indicator of sufficient kidney perfusion and improving
hydration status. Decreased skin turgor, tachycardia (elevated heart rate), and
dry mucous membranes are signs of dehydration.

, Question 4:
A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which potential side
effect is most important for the PN to monitor?
a) Hypokalemia (low potassium).
b) Hyperglycemia (high blood sugar).
c) Bradycardia (slow heart rate).
d) Constipation.


Answer: a) Hypokalemia (low potassium).
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes excretion of potassium
along with sodium and water. Hypokalemia can lead to cardiac dysrhythmias,
muscle weakness, and other complications, especially in clients with heart
conditions.


Question 5:
The PN is reinforcing teaching for a client prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which
statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
a) "I should use an electric razor instead of a blade razor."
b) "I need to have my blood tested regularly."
c) "I will increase my intake of leafy green vegetables."
d) "I should report any unusual bruising or bleeding."


Answer: c) "I will increase my intake of leafy green vegetables."
Rationale: Leafy green vegetables (like spinach, kale) are high in Vitamin K,
which is the antidote for warfarin. Inconsistent or significantly increased intake
of Vitamin K can interfere with warfarin's anticoagulant effect. Clients should

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