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NR 603 Week 4 APEA Predictor Exam: Questions, Answers, and Detailed Explanations

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NR 603 Week 4 APEA Predictor Exam: Questions, Answers, and Detailed Explanations This is a comprehensive questions, answers, and detailed explanations for NR 603 Week 4 APEA Predictor Exam. This resource is designed to help nursing students prepare effectively for their exams with clear, concise, and well-organized content. Each question is paired with its correct answer and a detailed explanation to enhance understanding and retention.

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NR 603 APEA Predictor Exam | Nursing

(Questions and Answers with Explanations)

1. During pregnancy, dyspnea accompanied by increased respiratory rate, cough,
rales, or respiratory distress raises concerns of:

◦ Answer: Peripartum cardiomyopathy

◦ Explanation: Dyspnea with increased respiratory rate, cough, rales, or respiratory
distress during pregnancy could indicate infection, asthma, pulmonary embolus,
or peripartum cardiomyopathy.

2. The middle section of the thoracic cavity containing the esophagus, trachea, heart,
and great vessels is the:

◦ Answer: Mediastinum

◦ Explanation: The mediastinum is the central thoracic cavity containing the
esophagus, trachea, heart, and great vessels, anked by the pleural cavities with
the lungs, visceral pleura, and pericardium.

3. A patient is unable to identify the smell of an orange. This inability could re ect an
abnormality in cranial nerves:

◦ Answer: CN I

◦ Explanation: Cranial Nerve I (olfactory nerve) is responsible for smell. Testing
with familiar odors assesses its function, while CN II and III assess vision and
pupillary reaction, and CN VIII tests hearing and balance.

4. A transient ischemic attack is:




fl fl

, ◦ Answer: A transient episode of neurologic dysfunction by focal brain, spinal cord,
or retinal ischemia, without acute infarction

◦ Explanation: A TIA is de ned as transient neurological dysfunction due to focal
ischemia without infarction, distinct from ischemic stroke, which involves tissue
infarction.

5. The term asteatosis refers to:

◦ Answer: Skin that is dry, aky, rough, and often itchy

◦ Explanation: Asteatosis describes dry, aky, rough, itchy skin due to aging-
related loss of elastic turgor. Other skin changes include sun damage, seborrheic
keratosis, or herpes zoster lesions.

6. An enlarged liver with a smooth tender edge may suggest:

◦ Answer: Right-sided heart failure

◦ Explanation: A smooth, tender, enlarged liver indicates in ammation (e.g.,
hepatitis) or venous congestion (e.g., right-sided heart failure). Firm, nontender
enlargement suggests cirrhosis, hemochromatosis, lymphoma, or hepatocellular
carcinoma.

7. New onset hypertension with proteinuria or end-organ damage is:

◦ Answer: Preeclampsia

◦ Explanation: Preeclampsia is new-onset hypertension with proteinuria or end-
organ damage after 20 weeks gestation. Chronic hypertension occurs before
pregnancy or persists postpartum, gestational hypertension lacks proteinuria, and
primary hypertension has no identi able cause.

8. The psoas muscle group and muscles of the abdominal wall assist with:

◦ Answer: Flexion




fi
fl fi fl fl

, ◦ Explanation: The psoas and abdominal wall muscles aid exion, while deep back
muscles assist extension, and abdominal and back muscles support rotation and
lateral bending.

9. "Preterm small for gestational age" (SGA) infants are prone to:

◦ Answer: Hypocalcemia

◦ Explanation: Preterm SGA infants are at risk for asphyxia, hypoglycemia, and
hypocalcemia, while preterm AGA infants face respiratory distress, apnea, patent
ductus arteriosus, and infections.

10. Swelling noted 1-2 inches below the knee joint and on the medial surface of the knee
would be suggestive of:

◦ Answer: Anserine bursitis

◦ Explanation: Swelling below the knee on the medial surface suggests anserine
bursitis, while swelling over the tibial tubercle, patella, or posterior medial knee
indicates infrapatellar, prepatellar, or semimembranous bursitis, respectively.

11. A patient states that the only way he can sleep at night is to use several pillows or to
sleep upright in a recliner. This sleep pattern is most consistent with:

◦ Answer: Obstructive lung disease

◦ Explanation: Orthopnea, requiring pillows or upright sleeping, is typical in
obstructive lung disease, mitral stenosis, or heart failure. Paroxysmal nocturnal
dyspnea involves sudden dyspnea resolving with sitting or standing.

12. A positive obturator sign would elicit pain in the:

◦ Answer: Right hypogastric area




fl

, ◦ Explanation: A positive obturator sign, caused by exing and internally rotating
the right thigh, elicits hypogastric pain due to an in amed appendix rubbing
against the obturator muscle.

13. The lateral bone that serves as a strut between the scapula and the sternum is
known as the:

◦ Answer: Clavicle

◦ Explanation: The clavicle connects the scapula to the sternum, while the humerus
is the upper arm bone, and the acromion and coracoid processes are scapular
extensions.

14. When examining the foot of a patient, the nurse practitioner notes focal heel
tenderness on palpation of the plantar fascia. This could be suggestive of:

◦ Answer: Plantar fasciitis

◦ Explanation: Focal heel tenderness on the plantar fascia suggests plantar fasciitis,
distinct from bone spurs, ankle arthritis, or posterior tibial tendinitis.

15. When examining the conjunctiva and sclera, have the patient look upward and
then:

◦ Answer: Depress both lower lids with your thumbs, exposing the sclera and
conjunctiva

◦ Explanation: Depressing the lower lids while the patient looks upward exposes
the conjunctiva and sclera, unlike visual acuity tests, lacrimal assessments, or
eyelid position checks.

16. The groove of the metacarpophalangeal joint can be palpated by having the patient:

◦ Answer: Flex his hand




fl

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