Test Bank For Applied Pathophysiology A Conceptual Approach 4th Edition Judi Nath All Chapters (1-20) | A+ ULTIMATE GUIDE 2025 [GRADED A+] new price for limited time $10

Applied Pathophysiology: A Conceptual Approach, 4th Edition by Judi Nath, Carie Braun Complete Test Bank, All Chapters Included Ace Your Exams with Confidence! Applied Pathophysiology: A Conceptual Approach (4th Edition) Complete Test Bank — All Chapters Covered Accurate | Comprehensive | Exam-Ready Applied Pathophysiology: A Conceptual Approach, 4th Edition by Judi Nath, Carie Braun Complete Test Bank, All Chapters Included Chapter 1: Introduction to Pathophysiology 1. The nucleus, which is essential for function and survival of the cell: A) is the site of protein synthesis B) contains the genetic code C) transforms cellular energy D) initiates aerobic metabolism Answer: B 2. Although energy is not made in mitochondria, they are known as the power plants of the cell because they: A) contain RNA for protein synthesis. B) utilize glycolysis for oxidative energy. C) extract energy from organic compounds. D) store calcium bonds for muscle contractions. Answer: C 3. Although the basic structure of the cell plasma membrane is formed by a lipid bilayer, most of the specific membrane functions are carried out by: A) bound and transmembrane proteins. B) complex, long carbohydrate chains. C) surface antigens and hormone receptors. D) a gating system of selective ion channels. Answer: A 4. To effectively relay signals, cell-to-cell communication utilizes chemical messenger systems that: A) displace surface receptor proteins. B) accumulate within cell gap junctions. C) bind to contractile microfilaments. D) release secretions into extracellular fluid. Answer: D 5. Aerobic metabolism, also known as oxidative metabolism, provides energy by: A) removing the phosphate bonds from ATP. B) combining hydrogen and oxygen to form water. C) activating pyruvate stored in the cytoplasm. D) breaking down glucose to form lactic acid. Answer: B 6. Exocytosis, the reverse of endocytosis, is important in ___ into the extracellular fluid. A) Engulfing and ingesting fluid and proteins for transport B) Killing, degrading, and dissolving harmful microorganisms C) Removing cellular debris and releasing synthesized substances D) Destruction of particles by lysosomal enzymes for secretion Answer: C 7. The process responsible for generating and conducting membrane potentials is: A) diffusion of current-carrying ions. B) millivoltage of electrical potential. C) polarization of charged particles. D) ion channel neurotransmission. Answer: A 8. Epithelial tissues are classified according to the shape of the cells and the number of layers. Which of the following is a correctly matched description and type of epithelial tissue? A) Simple epithelium: cells in contact with intercellular matrix; some do not extend to surface B) Stratified epithelium: single layer of cells; all cells rest on basement membrane C) Glandular epithelium: arise from surface epithelia and underlying connective tissue D) Pseudostratified epithelium: multiple layers of cells; deepest layer rests on basement membrane Answer: C 9. Connective tissue contains fibroblasts that are responsible for: A) providing a fibrous framework for capillaries. B) synthesis of collagen, elastin, and reticular fibers. C) forming tendons and the fascia that covers muscles. D) filling spaces between tissues to keep organs in place. Answer: B 10. Although all muscle tissue cells have some similarities, smooth muscle (also known as involuntary muscle) differs by: A) having dense bodies attached to actin filaments. B) containing sarcomeres between Z lines and M bands. C) having rapid contractions and abundant cross-striations. D) contracting in response to increased intracellular calcium. Answer: A 11. Which of the following aspects of the function of the nucleus is performed by ribosomal RNA (rRNA)? A) Copying and carrying DNA instructions for protein synthesis B) Carrying amino acids to the site of protein synthesis C) Providing the site where protein synthesis occurs D) Regulating and controlling protein synthesis Answer: C 12. Breakdown and removal of foreign substances and worn-out cell parts are performed by which of the following organelles? A) Lysosomes B) Golgi apparatus C) Ribosomes D) Endoplasmic reticulum (ER) Answer: A 13. Impairment in the function of peroxisomes would result in: A) inadequate sites for protein synthesis. B) an inability to transport cellular products across the cell membrane. C) insufficient energy production within a cell. D) accumulation of free radicals in the cytoplasm. Answer: D 14. After several months of trying to conceive, a couple is undergoing fertility testing. Semen analysis indicates that the man's sperm have decreased motility, a finding that is thought to underlie the couple's inability to become pregnant. Which of the following cellular components may be defective within the man's sperm? A) Ribosomes B) Microtubules C) Mitochondria D) Microfilaments Answer: B 15. Which of the following statements is true of glycolysis? A) Glycolysis requires oxygen. B) Glycolysis occurs in cells without mitochondria. C) Glycolysis provides the majority of the body’s energy needs. D) Glycolysis produces energy, water, and carbon dioxide. Answer: B 16. Which of the following membrane transport mechanisms requires the greatest amount of energy? A) Facilitated diffusion B) Passive transport C) Vesicular transport D) Simple diffusion Answer: C 17. A male patient with a diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus is experiencing hyperglycemia because he lacks sufficient insulin to increase the availability of glucose transporters in his cell membranes. Consequently, his cells lack intracellular glucose and it accumulates in his blood. Which of the following processes would best allow glucose to cross his cell membranes? A) Facilitated diffusion B) Simple diffusion C) Secondary active transport D) Endocytosis Answer: A 18. Which of the following statements is true of skeletal muscle cells? A) Skeletal muscle cells each have an apical, lateral, and basal surface. B) They are closely apposed and are joined by cell-to-cell adhesion molecules. C) Their basal surface is attached to a basement membrane. D) Skeletal muscle is multinucleated, lacking true cell boundaries. Answer: D 19. Which of the following body tissues exhibits the highest rate of turnover and renewal? A) The squamous epithelial cells of the skin B) The connective tissue supporting blood vessels C) The skeletal muscle that facilitates movement D) The nervous tissue that constitutes the central nervous system Answer: A 20. A patient with a pathophysiologic condition that affects the desmosomes is most likely to exhibit: A) impaired contraction of skeletal and smooth muscle. B) weakness of the collagen and elastin fibers in the extracellular space. C) impaired communication between neurons and effector organs. D) separation at the junctions between epithelial cells. Answer: D Chapter 2: Altered Cells and Tissues 1. Ischemia and other toxic injuries increase the accumulation of intracellular calcium as a result of: A) Release of stored calcium from the mitochondria B) Improved intracellular volume regulation C) Decreased influx across the cell membrane D) Attraction of calcium to fatty infiltrates Answer: A 2. The patient is found to have liver disease, resulting in the removal of a lobe of his liver. Adaptation to the reduced size of the liver leads to _____ of the remaining liver cells. A) Metaplasia B) Organ atrophy C) Compensatory hyperplasia D) Physiologic hypertrophy Answer: C 3. A person eating peanuts starts choking and collapses. His airway obstruction is partially cleared, but he remains hypoxic until he reaches the hospital. The prolonged cell hypoxia caused a cerebral infarction and resulted in the brain: A) Caspase activation B) Coagulation necrosis C) Rapid phagocytosis D) Protein p53 deficiency Answer: B 4. Bacteria and viruses cause cell damage by _____, which is unique from the intracellular damage caused by other injurious agents. A) Disrupting the sodium/potassium ATPase pump B) Interrupting oxidative metabolism processes C) Replicating and producing continued injury D) Decreasing protein synthesis and function Answer: C 5. The patient has a prolonged interruption in arterial blood flow to his left kidney, causing hypoxic cell injury and the release of free radicals. Free radicals damage cells by: A) Destroying phospholipids in the cell membrane B) Altering the immune response of the cell C) Disrupting calcium storage in the cell D) Inactivation of enzymes and mitochondria Answer: A 6. Injured cells have impaired flow of substances through the cell membrane as a result of: A) Increased fat load B) Altered permeability C) Altered glucose utilization D) Increased surface receptors Answer: B 7. Reversible adaptive intracellular responses are initiated by: A) Stimulus overload B) Genetic mutations C) Chemical messengers D) Mitochondrial DNA Answer: C 8. Injured cells become very swollen as a result of: A) Increased cell protein synthesis B) Altered cell volume regulation C) Passive entry of potassium into the cell D) Bleb formation in the plasma membrane Answer: B 9. A diabetic patient has impaired sensation, circulation, and oxygenation of his feet. He steps on a piece of glass, the wound does not heal, and the area tissue becomes necrotic. The necrotic cell death is characterized by: A) Rapid apoptosis B) Cellular rupture C) Shrinkage and collapse D) Chronic inflammation Answer: B 10. A 99-year-old woman has experienced the decline of cell function associated with age. A group of theories of cellular aging focus on programmed: A) Changes with genetic influences B) Elimination of cell receptor sites C) Insufficient telomerase enzyme D) DNA mutation or faulty repair Answer: A 11. An 89-year-old female patient has experienced significant decreases in her mobility and stamina during a 3-week hospital stay for the treatment of a femoral head fracture. Which of the following phenomena most likely accounts for the patient's decrease in muscle function that underlies her reduced mobility? A) Impaired muscle cell metabolism resulting from metaplasia B) Dysplasia as a consequence of inflammation during bone remodeling C) Disuse atrophy of muscle cells during a prolonged period of immobility D) Ischemic atrophy resulting from vascular changes while on bedrest Answer: C 12. A 20-year-old college student has presented to her campus medical clinic for a scheduled Papanicolaou (Pap) smear. The clinician who will interpret the smear will examine cell samples for evidence of: A) Changes in cell shape, size, and organization B) The presence of unexpected cell types C) Ischemic changes in cell samples D) Abnormally high numbers of cells in a specified field Answer: A 13. Which of the following pathophysiologic processes is most likely to result in metastatic calcification? A) Benign prostatic hyperplasia B) Liver cirrhosis C) Impaired glycogen metabolism D) Hyperparathyroidism Answer: D 14. Despite the low levels of radiation used in contemporary radiologic imaging, a radiology technician is aware of the need to minimize her exposure to ionizing radiation. What is the primary rationale for the technician's precautions? A) Radiation stimulates pathologic cell hypertrophy and hyperplasia B) Radiation results in the accumulation of endogenous waste products in the cytoplasm C) Radiation interferes with DNA synthesis and mitosis D) Radiation decreases the action potential of rapidly dividing cells Answer: C 15. The parents of a 4-year-old girl have sought care because their daughter has admitted to chewing and swallowing imported toy figurines that have been determined to be made of lead. Which of the following blood tests should the care team prioritize? A) White blood cell levels with differential B) Red blood cell levels and morphology C) Urea and creatinine levels D) Liver function panel Answer: B 16. A 70-year-old male patient has been admitted to a hospital for the treatment of a recent hemorrhagic stroke that has left him with numerous motor and sensory deficits. These deficits are most likely the result of which of the following mechanisms of cell injury? A) Free radical injury B) Hypoxia and ATP depletion C) Interference with DNA synthesis D) Impaired calcium homeostasis Answer: B 17. Which of the following processes associated with cellular injury is most likely to be reversible? A) Cell damage resulting from accumulation of fat in the cytoplasm B) Cellular changes as a result of ionizing radiation C) Cell damage from accumulation of free radicals D) Apoptosis Answer: A 18. The extrinsic pathway of apoptosis can be initiated by: A) Damage to cellular DNA B) Decreased ATP levels C) Activation of the p53 protein D) Activation of death receptors on the cell surface Answer: D 19. A patient with severe peripheral vascular disease has developed signs of dry gangrene on the great toe of one foot. Which of the following pathophysiologic processes most likely contributed to this diagnosis? A) Inappropriate activation of apoptosis B) Bacterial invasion C) Impaired arterial blood supply D) Metaplastic cellular changes Answer: C 20. Which of the following facts underlies the concept of replicative senescence? A) Genes controlling longevity are present or absent in varying quantities among different individuals B) Telomeres become progressively shorter in successive generations of a cell C) The damaging influence of free radicals increases exponentially in later generations of a cell D) Aging produces mutations in DNA and deficits in DNA repair Answer: B Chapter 3: Inflammation and Tissue Repair – Test Bank 1. The characteristic, localized cardinal signs of acute inflammation include: A) Fever B) Fatigue C) Redness D) Granuloma Answer: C 2. The vascular stage of acute inflammation begins with momentary vasoconstriction followed by vasodilation, leading to localized: A) Bleeding B) Congestion C) Pale skin D) Coolness Answer: B 3. The cellular stage of acute inflammation involves leukocyte movement into the affected area. Which type of cell arrives first and in the greatest number? A) Basophils B) Lymphocytes C) Neutrophils D) Platelets Answer: C 4. Phagocytosis occurs in three key steps. Which is the initial step? A) Engulfment B) Intracellular killing C) Antigen margination D) Recognition and adherence Answer: D 5. Which inflammatory mediator increases capillary permeability and causes pain? A) Serotonin B) Histamine C) Bradykinin D) Nitric oxide Answer: C 6. Among the various types of exudates, which one contains necrotic cells enmeshed in fibrous material? A) Serous B) Fibrinous C) Suppurative D) Membranous Answer: D 7. The acute-phase systemic response typically begins within hours of inflammation onset and includes: A) Fever and lethargy B) Decreased C-reactive protein C) Positive nitrogen balance D) Low erythrocyte sedimentation rate Answer: A 8. Compared to acute inflammation, chronic inflammation is identified by: A) Profuse fibrinous exudation B) A left shift in granulocytes C) Metabolic and respiratory alkalosis D) Lymphocytosis and activated macrophages Answer: D 9. Exogenous pyrogens like interleukin-1 and the presence of bacteria in the bloodstream lead to the release of endogenous pyrogens that: A) Stabilize thermal control in the brain B) Cause leukocytosis and anorexia C) Block viral replication in cells D) Inhibit prostaglandin release Answer: B 10. An older adult patient has sheared the skin on her elbow, triggering acute inflammation. During the vascular stage, which event occurs? A) Outpouring of exudate into interstitial spaces B) Chemotaxis C) Leukocyte accumulation along the epithelium D) Phagocytosis of cellular debris Answer: A 11. Who among the following is most at risk for developing chronic inflammation? A) A newly diagnosed type 2 diabetic B) A carrier of an antibiotic-resistant organism C) A patient on antibiotics for a respiratory infection D) A morbidly obese individual with a sedentary lifestyle Answer: D 12. Which of the following body temperatures falls within the normal range? A) 35.9°C (96.6°F) B) 38.0°C (100.4°F) C) 35.5°C (95.9°F) D) 37.3°C (99.1°F) Answer: D 13. A postsurgical patient complains of feeling cold. What action will the hypothalamus likely trigger to reduce heat loss? A) Opening arteriovenous (AV) shunts B) Decreasing exhalation of warm air C) Contraction of pilomotor muscles D) Reducing urine output Answer: C 14. An elderly patient in a hospital gown requests a warm blanket due to a draft. Which heat loss mechanism is most likely causing her discomfort? A) Evaporation and conduction B) Radiation and convection C) Conduction and convection D) Convection and evaporation Answer: B 15. Which of the following can stimulate pyrogen production? (Select all that apply) A) Acute inflammation B) Obesity C) Myocardial infarction D) Malignancy E) Renal failure Answers: A, C, D 16. Who is most likely to develop a neurogenic fever? A) A stage II Alzheimer’s patient B) A patient with a head injury from a bicycle crash C) A patient delirious from benzodiazepines D) A patient recently prescribed SSRIs for depression Answer: B 17. Patients are often given antipyretics if their temperature exceeds 37.5°C (99.5°F). What’s the most accurate rationale for this? A) High temperatures can cause seizures B) Lower temperatures suppress bacterial protein synthesis C) There's limited empirical support for this approach D) Common antipyretics have little impact on core temperature Answer: C 18. A patient reports recurring high fever for two days followed by a normal temperature for a day or two. Which fever pattern is this? A) Recurrent fever B) Remittent fever C) Sustained fever D) Intermittent fever Answer: D 19. A 3-week-old febrile infant is being evaluated. Why is this assessment crucial? A) Immature hypothalamus impairs thermoregulation B) Infants are prone to infections due to poor immunity C) Antipyretics don’t work well in infants D) Fever usually signals congenital conditions in neonates Answer: B 20. An 84-year-old patient has a positive blood culture despite a normal temperature. What explains this atypical fever response in the elderly? A) Dysfunction of the thermoregulatory center B) Excessive evaporative heat loss C) Comorbidities linked to lower core temperatures D) Persistent AV shunt closure Answer: A Chapter 4: Altered Immunity 1. The mediators involved in type 1 hypersensitivity allergic responses are released from: A) Mast cells B) Plasma cells C) Monocytes D) Arachidonic acid Answer: A 2. A genetically determined hypersensitivity to common environmental allergens causes reactions such as: A) Atopic; urticaria B) Autoimmune; diarrhea C) IgM-mediated; infections D) Delayed; poison ivy rash Answer: A 3. A mismatched blood transfusion reaction with hemolysis of blood cells is an example of type 2, _____-mediated hypersensitivity reaction. A) T-cell B) Antibody C) Leukotriene D) Complement Answer: B 4. Type 3 hypersensitivity immune responses can be harmful when immune complex deposits in tissues activate _____ that can directly damage surrounding tissues. A) Inflammation B) Autoantibodies C) Cytotoxic cells D) Immunoglobulins Answer: A 5. The mechanism by which the human body recognizes self-cells from non-self (antigenic) cells is called: A) Autoimmunity B) Self-tolerance C) Non-self anergy D) Immunocompatibility Answer: B 6. Organ rejection is a complication of transplantation caused by recipient immune cells: A) Destroying host T cells B) Attacking donor cells C) Combining with graft HLA D) Being recognized as foreign Answer: B 7. The leading cause of death in individuals with HIV is opportunistic: A) Leukemia B) Tuberculosis C) Pneumonia D) Toxoplasmosis Answer: B 8. Wasting syndrome, an AIDS-defining illness, is characterized by involuntary weight loss of at least 10% of baseline body weight, along with: A) Diarrhea B) Hypermetabolism C) Weakness and fever D) Glucose intolerance Answer: A 9. The window period of HIV infection refers to the time between infection and: A) Transmission B) Seroconversion C) Initial symptoms D) Antibody screening Answer: B 10. HIV-positive individuals who show signs of laboratory category 3 or clinical category C are considered to have: A) Zero viral load B) Seroconversion C) Complete remission D) AIDS-defining illnesses Answer: D 11. After contact with poison ivy, a patient develops intense itching, redness, and weeping lesions on the forearm. Which process caused these symptoms? A) IgE-mediated mast cell degranulation B) Formation of antigen-antibody complexes C) Cytokine release by sensitized T cells D) Antibodies against cell surface antigens Answer: C 12. A patient with chronic hay fever has started immunotherapy (allergy shots). How might this treatment be effective? A) Blocking cytokine release from sensitized mast cells B) Preventing mast cell sensitization C) Sequestering T cells in the thymus D) Stimulating IgG production to bind antigens Answer: D 13. A patient with cirrhosis experiences acute rejection of a donor liver. Which cell is central to the rejection of the transplanted organ? A) Natural killer cells B) Mast cells C) T cells D) Neutrophils Answer: C 14. A patient who underwent allogenic bone marrow transplant for aplastic anemia presents with signs of GVHD. Which symptom most clearly suggests this? A) Shortness of breath and low PaO2 B) Pruritic rash that begins to slough C) Metabolic acidosis D) Fever, sweating, and anxiety Answer: B 15. A patient develops pericarditis after glomerulonephritis due to group A, beta-hemolytic streptococcal infection. What caused this autoimmune response? A) Breakdown of T-cell anergy B) Release of sequestered antigens C) Superantigens D) Molecular mimicry Answer: D 16. A 70-year-old woman has reduced mobility due to rheumatoid arthritis. What process likely contributed to her condition? A) Delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction B) Cytotoxic T cell proliferation C) Failure of self-tolerance D) Deletion of autoreactive B cells Answer: C 17. Which of the following is a normal finding in a neonate? A) Minimal or absent IgA and IgM levels B) No plasma cells in lymph nodes and spleen C) Undetectable immunoglobulin levels D) No mature B cells but normal T-cell function Answer: A 18. A patient diagnosed with HIV several years ago is being monitored. Which test best indicates disease stage and severity? A) Plasma levels B) CD4+ cell counts C) Viral load D) White blood cell count Answer: B 19. A patient with HIV recently progressed to AIDS. What should be the nurse’s care priority? A) Frequent neurologic checks and skin care B) Hemodynamic monitoring and physical therapy C) Monitor fluid balance and neurologic status D) Infection control and respiratory assessments Answer: D