1. A client taking furosemide reports muscle cramps. Which lab
value correlates with this symptom?
A. Sodium 142
B. Potassium 2.9
C. Chloride 101
D. Magnesium 2.0
Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide can cause hypokalemia, which leads to
muscle cramps. Normal potassium: 3.5–5.0.
2. A nurse is caring for a client on glipizide. Which statement
indicates understanding?
A. “I can skip meals if I’m not hungry.”
B. “This medication will not cause low blood sugar.”
C. “I will avoid alcohol while taking this.”
D. “I can take this with grapefruit juice.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Alcohol with glipizide increases the risk of
hypoglycemia and a disulfiram-like reaction.
3. A client on sertraline reports increased restlessness and
confusion. What should the nurse suspect?
A. Extrapyramidal symptoms
B. Lithium toxicity
C. Serotonin syndrome
D. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
Answer: C
Rationale: Serotonin syndrome includes agitation, confusion,
tachycardia, and hyperreflexia.
4. A client is receiving morphine IV post-op. Which finding is the
,priority?
A. Nausea
B. Respiratory rate of 8/min
C. Itching
D. Sedation score of 2
Answer: B
Rationale: Respiratory depression (<12/min) is the most life
threatening side effect of opioids.
5. A client is taking diphenhydramine. Which side effect is most
likely?
A. Hypertension
B. Drowsiness
C. Diarrhea
D. Insomnia
Answer: B
Rationale: First-generation antihistamines like diphenhydramine
cause sedation and drowsiness.
6. A client with chronic constipation uses magnesium citrate
daily. What risk should the nurse discuss?
A. Hypertension
B. Hypernatremia
C. Electrolyte imbalance
D. Dehydration
Answer: C
Rationale: Chronic laxative use, especially osmotic types like
magnesium citrate, causes fluid and electrolyte imbalances.
7. A client asks about insulin glargine (Lantus). What is the
correct response?
A. “It works immediately.”
B. “It peaks in 4 hours.”
, C. “It has no peak and lasts 24 hours.”
D. “It must be mixed with regular insulin.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Glargine is a long-acting insulin with no pronounced
peak, providing steady glucose control.
8. A client taking phenytoin shows swollen, bleeding gums. What
should the nurse recommend?
A. Discontinue the drug
B. Increase fluid intake
C. Practice good oral hygiene
D. Reduce dietary sugar
Answer: C
Rationale: Gingival hyperplasia is a known side effect. Encourage
oral care, not discontinuation.
9. A client uses sublingual nitroglycerin. Which instruction is
correct?
A. Swallow the pill with water
B. Take up to 3 doses, 5 minutes apart
C. Store it in a warm area
D. Use it once weekly
Answer: B
Rationale: For chest pain, take 1 tablet every 5 minutes, up to 3
doses, and call 911 if no relief after the first.
10. A client with myasthenia gravis is prescribed neostigmine.
Which finding indicates underdosing?
A. Bradycardia
B. Muscle weakness
C. Diarrhea
D. Excessive salivation
Answer: B
value correlates with this symptom?
A. Sodium 142
B. Potassium 2.9
C. Chloride 101
D. Magnesium 2.0
Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide can cause hypokalemia, which leads to
muscle cramps. Normal potassium: 3.5–5.0.
2. A nurse is caring for a client on glipizide. Which statement
indicates understanding?
A. “I can skip meals if I’m not hungry.”
B. “This medication will not cause low blood sugar.”
C. “I will avoid alcohol while taking this.”
D. “I can take this with grapefruit juice.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Alcohol with glipizide increases the risk of
hypoglycemia and a disulfiram-like reaction.
3. A client on sertraline reports increased restlessness and
confusion. What should the nurse suspect?
A. Extrapyramidal symptoms
B. Lithium toxicity
C. Serotonin syndrome
D. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
Answer: C
Rationale: Serotonin syndrome includes agitation, confusion,
tachycardia, and hyperreflexia.
4. A client is receiving morphine IV post-op. Which finding is the
,priority?
A. Nausea
B. Respiratory rate of 8/min
C. Itching
D. Sedation score of 2
Answer: B
Rationale: Respiratory depression (<12/min) is the most life
threatening side effect of opioids.
5. A client is taking diphenhydramine. Which side effect is most
likely?
A. Hypertension
B. Drowsiness
C. Diarrhea
D. Insomnia
Answer: B
Rationale: First-generation antihistamines like diphenhydramine
cause sedation and drowsiness.
6. A client with chronic constipation uses magnesium citrate
daily. What risk should the nurse discuss?
A. Hypertension
B. Hypernatremia
C. Electrolyte imbalance
D. Dehydration
Answer: C
Rationale: Chronic laxative use, especially osmotic types like
magnesium citrate, causes fluid and electrolyte imbalances.
7. A client asks about insulin glargine (Lantus). What is the
correct response?
A. “It works immediately.”
B. “It peaks in 4 hours.”
, C. “It has no peak and lasts 24 hours.”
D. “It must be mixed with regular insulin.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Glargine is a long-acting insulin with no pronounced
peak, providing steady glucose control.
8. A client taking phenytoin shows swollen, bleeding gums. What
should the nurse recommend?
A. Discontinue the drug
B. Increase fluid intake
C. Practice good oral hygiene
D. Reduce dietary sugar
Answer: C
Rationale: Gingival hyperplasia is a known side effect. Encourage
oral care, not discontinuation.
9. A client uses sublingual nitroglycerin. Which instruction is
correct?
A. Swallow the pill with water
B. Take up to 3 doses, 5 minutes apart
C. Store it in a warm area
D. Use it once weekly
Answer: B
Rationale: For chest pain, take 1 tablet every 5 minutes, up to 3
doses, and call 911 if no relief after the first.
10. A client with myasthenia gravis is prescribed neostigmine.
Which finding indicates underdosing?
A. Bradycardia
B. Muscle weakness
C. Diarrhea
D. Excessive salivation
Answer: B
