Exam
Q1: Which of the following best describes cloud computing?
A) A type of local server infrastructure
B) On-demand network access to shared computing resources
C) A manual process for data entry
D) A proprietary desktop application
Answer: B
Explanation: Cloud computing provides on-demand network access to shared pools of
configurable computing resources.
Q2: What is a key characteristic of cloud computing?
A) Limited scalability
B) Rapid elasticity
C) Fixed resource allocation
D) High upfront costs
Answer: B
Explanation: Rapid elasticity allows resources to be scaled up or down quickly as needed.
Q3: Which service model provides the basic building blocks for IT that can be rented?
A) SaaS
B) PaaS
C) IaaS
D) DaaS
Answer: C
Explanation: Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) offers fundamental computing resources on a pay-
as-you-go basis.
Q4: Which cloud deployment model is available to the general public?
A) Private Cloud
B) Community Cloud
C) Public Cloud
D) Hybrid Cloud
Answer: C
Explanation: Public clouds are owned by service providers and available to anyone who wants to
purchase them.
Q5: Which of the following is a primary benefit of cloud computing?
A) Increased capital expenditure
B) Reduced scalability
C) Enhanced flexibility
D) Limited remote access
Answer: C
,Explanation: Cloud computing offers enhanced flexibility by allowing resources to be scaled and
accessed remotely.
Q6: In cloud terminology, what does “multi-tenancy” refer to?
A) Single user access
B) Dedicated hardware for each user
C) Multiple customers sharing a common infrastructure
D) Offline computing resources
Answer: C
Explanation: Multi-tenancy means that multiple customers share the same computing resources
while keeping their data separate.
Q7: What does virtualization in cloud architecture enable?
A) Physical separation of hardware only
B) Creation of multiple virtual environments on a single physical machine
C) Increased manual configuration
D) Exclusive access to physical servers
Answer: B
Explanation: Virtualization allows multiple virtual machines to run on one physical machine,
enhancing resource utilization.
Q8: Which concept describes applications built to take full advantage of cloud computing?
A) Monolithic architecture
B) Client-server computing
C) Cloud-native architecture
D) Legacy systems
Answer: C
Explanation: Cloud-native architecture is designed specifically for cloud environments,
emphasizing scalability and resilience.
Q9: What role do microservices play in cloud-based solutions?
A) They combine all services into one large application
B) They break down applications into independent, manageable services
C) They restrict application scalability
D) They require on-premises deployment
Answer: B
Explanation: Microservices decompose applications into smaller, independent services that are
easier to manage and scale.
Q10: Which of the following best defines the term “elasticity” in cloud computing?
A) The ability to change operating systems quickly
B) The ability to automatically scale resources up or down
C) The ability to change cloud vendors frequently
D) The ability to increase network latency
Answer: B
,Explanation: Elasticity is the cloud’s ability to dynamically allocate and de-allocate resources as
demand changes.
Q11: What is a primary challenge of cloud computing?
A) Unlimited local storage
B) Data security and privacy
C) Zero maintenance costs
D) Manual resource provisioning
Answer: B
Explanation: Data security and privacy remain major challenges in cloud environments due to
shared resources and multi-tenancy.
Q12: Which cloud service model is best suited for developers to build, test, and deploy
applications without managing the underlying infrastructure?
A) IaaS
B) SaaS
C) PaaS
D) FaaS
Answer: C
Explanation: Platform as a Service (PaaS) provides developers with tools and environments to
build and deploy applications without handling hardware management.
Q13: What does SaaS stand for?
A) Software as a Service
B) Storage as a Service
C) Security as a Service
D) Service as a Software
Answer: A
Explanation: SaaS stands for Software as a Service, delivering software applications over the
internet.
Q14: Which of the following is an example of a SaaS application?
A) Virtual machines
B) Web-based email services
C) Database infrastructure
D) Operating system virtualization
Answer: B
Explanation: Web-based email services are delivered over the internet as SaaS.
Q15: Which cloud deployment model combines public and private cloud features?
A) Community Cloud
B) Hybrid Cloud
C) Distributed Cloud
D) Federated Cloud
Answer: B
, Explanation: Hybrid Cloud integrates public and private cloud infrastructures to leverage the
benefits of both.
Q16: What is the primary goal of cloud adoption strategy?
A) To increase hardware costs
B) To reduce operational efficiency
C) To align IT strategy with business objectives
D) To limit scalability
Answer: C
Explanation: A cloud adoption strategy ensures that the IT infrastructure supports and advances
business objectives.
Q17: In cloud strategy, what does a cost-benefit analysis typically assess?
A) The color of server racks
B) Expected savings and potential risks
C) The number of employees
D) The size of the physical data center
Answer: B
Explanation: A cost-benefit analysis compares the financial savings and efficiency gains against
the risks and costs of moving to the cloud.
Q18: Which migration strategy involves running applications on both on-premises and
cloud environments simultaneously?
A) Rehosting
B) Hybrid migration
C) Replatforming
D) Refactoring
Answer: B
Explanation: Hybrid migration leverages both on-premises and cloud environments during the
transition phase.
Q19: What is the main purpose of a cloud governance framework?
A) To ignore compliance requirements
B) To define policies and controls for cloud usage
C) To increase hardware dependency
D) To eliminate risk management
Answer: B
Explanation: A cloud governance framework establishes policies, procedures, and controls to
ensure effective and compliant cloud usage.
Q20: Which of the following is a critical element of cloud policy management?
A) Unregulated resource allocation
B) Establishing clear usage guidelines
C) Ignoring compliance standards
D) Delaying audit processes
Answer: B