CEA Prep Full Exam
Question Bank
Latest Questions
with Answers
New Update
,CEA Exam
What is the most likely location of the area of focal consolidation seen in the patient's chest
X-ray?
Answer: Left upper lobe lingula.
Rationale: Lingular consolidation is described in this question precisely. If the cardiac
margin/silhouette is obliterated by the mass, the lesion is either right middle lobe or left upper
lobe lingula.
Which diagnosis is characterized by the inability of the myocardium to fully relax during
relaxation?
Answer: Diastolic dysfunction.
Rationale: The inability for the heart to relax is a trademark of diastolic dysfunction and is
common in patients with thickened hypertrophic myocardium.
Which medication is considered the best choice for an African American male with
hypertension who is following lifestyle modifications but still has elevated blood pressure?
Answer: Calcium channel blocker.
Rationale: According to the JNC8 Hypertension Guidelines, African American patients should
be managed with a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker like amlodipine (Norvasc) as first-
line therapy when blood pressure is not controlled with DASH and lifestyle modifications.
What is the standard of care for serial surveillance of a 4.5 cm ascending aortic aneurysm?
Answer: CT angiography of the chest.
Rationale: CT angiography is the standard of care for measuring vascular luminal dimensions
with contrast. Other imaging methods, such as plain films or transesophageal echocardiograms,
are not as accurate or necessary for routine monitoring.
,Which medication does not cause beta-1 stimulation?
Answer: Phenylephrine.
Rationale: Phenylephrine only stimulates alpha-1 receptors. The other options have beta receptor
activity.
What is the most likely diagnosis for a 50-year-old woman with hypertension, dyspnea on
exertion, orthopnea, jugular venous distention, and bilateral crackles on lung auscultation?
Answer: Congestive heart failure.
Rationale: These signs are suggestive of congestive heart failure due to right and left ventricular
backup, commonly presenting with symptoms of fluid overload.
What medication strategy is a priority for a patient with a history of heart failure with
reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF) after a myocardial infarction and stent placement?
Answer: Ordering a transthoracic echocardiogram and ordering a Lifevest if EF is less
than 35%.
Rationale: If the ejection fraction is less than 35%, a Lifevest or AICD is necessary due to the
increased risk of sudden cardiac death. Repeating an echo in 2-3 months is also important to
evaluate for improvement in EF.
What medication should be started for a 65-year-old smoker with controlled hypertension
and a cholesterol level of 240 mg/dL?
Answer: A statin drug.
Rationale: Given the patient’s risk factors, including smoking, hypertension, and a history of
premature coronary disease in her family, statin therapy is appropriate for lowering LDL
cholesterol.
Which end-organ sequelae is not directly caused by uncontrolled hypertension?
Answer: Peripheral neuropathy.
Rationale: Peripheral neuropathy is typically linked to diabetes rather than hypertension.
Proteinuria, AV nicking, and hemorrhagic stroke are more directly caused by uncontrolled
hypertension.
, What is the most appropriate initial treatment for a 33-year-old woman with irregular
menstrual cycles, hirsutism, obesity, elevated serum testosterone, and an LH ratio >2:1?
Answer: Oral contraceptives.
Rationale: Oral contraceptives are the first-line treatment for polycystic ovarian syndrome
(PCOS) to help regulate menstrual cycles, reduce androgenic symptoms, and protect the
endometrium.
What screening test should be performed regularly for an adult with diabetes to monitor
early signs of nephropathy?
Answer: Urine dipstick for protein.
Rationale: Proteinuria, as detected through urinalysis, is the most sensitive indicator of diabetic
nephropathy at the nephron level.
What is the starting dose of levothyroxine for an elderly adult with a BMI of 20?
Answer: 25 mcg.
Rationale: The best practice for treating hypothyroidism in elderly patients is to start with a low
dose (25 mcg) to reduce the risk of over-dosing and allow for gradual dose adjustment.
What laboratory test should be ordered for a patient with low TSH and thyroid
tenderness?
Answer: Triiodothyronine (T3) and free thyroxine (FT4).
Rationale: A low TSH level suggests hyperthyroidism, and testing for T3 and FT4 will confirm
the diagnosis, particularly if the patient exhibits symptoms like goiter or palpitations.
Which of the following is not a symptom of hypocalcemia?
Answer: Visual field deficits.
Rationale: Visual field deficits are more likely associated with a pituitary adenoma, while other
symptoms listed are related to hypocalcemia.
For a patient with type 2 diabetes and good control, when should the next follow-up
appointment be scheduled?
Question Bank
Latest Questions
with Answers
New Update
,CEA Exam
What is the most likely location of the area of focal consolidation seen in the patient's chest
X-ray?
Answer: Left upper lobe lingula.
Rationale: Lingular consolidation is described in this question precisely. If the cardiac
margin/silhouette is obliterated by the mass, the lesion is either right middle lobe or left upper
lobe lingula.
Which diagnosis is characterized by the inability of the myocardium to fully relax during
relaxation?
Answer: Diastolic dysfunction.
Rationale: The inability for the heart to relax is a trademark of diastolic dysfunction and is
common in patients with thickened hypertrophic myocardium.
Which medication is considered the best choice for an African American male with
hypertension who is following lifestyle modifications but still has elevated blood pressure?
Answer: Calcium channel blocker.
Rationale: According to the JNC8 Hypertension Guidelines, African American patients should
be managed with a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker like amlodipine (Norvasc) as first-
line therapy when blood pressure is not controlled with DASH and lifestyle modifications.
What is the standard of care for serial surveillance of a 4.5 cm ascending aortic aneurysm?
Answer: CT angiography of the chest.
Rationale: CT angiography is the standard of care for measuring vascular luminal dimensions
with contrast. Other imaging methods, such as plain films or transesophageal echocardiograms,
are not as accurate or necessary for routine monitoring.
,Which medication does not cause beta-1 stimulation?
Answer: Phenylephrine.
Rationale: Phenylephrine only stimulates alpha-1 receptors. The other options have beta receptor
activity.
What is the most likely diagnosis for a 50-year-old woman with hypertension, dyspnea on
exertion, orthopnea, jugular venous distention, and bilateral crackles on lung auscultation?
Answer: Congestive heart failure.
Rationale: These signs are suggestive of congestive heart failure due to right and left ventricular
backup, commonly presenting with symptoms of fluid overload.
What medication strategy is a priority for a patient with a history of heart failure with
reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF) after a myocardial infarction and stent placement?
Answer: Ordering a transthoracic echocardiogram and ordering a Lifevest if EF is less
than 35%.
Rationale: If the ejection fraction is less than 35%, a Lifevest or AICD is necessary due to the
increased risk of sudden cardiac death. Repeating an echo in 2-3 months is also important to
evaluate for improvement in EF.
What medication should be started for a 65-year-old smoker with controlled hypertension
and a cholesterol level of 240 mg/dL?
Answer: A statin drug.
Rationale: Given the patient’s risk factors, including smoking, hypertension, and a history of
premature coronary disease in her family, statin therapy is appropriate for lowering LDL
cholesterol.
Which end-organ sequelae is not directly caused by uncontrolled hypertension?
Answer: Peripheral neuropathy.
Rationale: Peripheral neuropathy is typically linked to diabetes rather than hypertension.
Proteinuria, AV nicking, and hemorrhagic stroke are more directly caused by uncontrolled
hypertension.
, What is the most appropriate initial treatment for a 33-year-old woman with irregular
menstrual cycles, hirsutism, obesity, elevated serum testosterone, and an LH ratio >2:1?
Answer: Oral contraceptives.
Rationale: Oral contraceptives are the first-line treatment for polycystic ovarian syndrome
(PCOS) to help regulate menstrual cycles, reduce androgenic symptoms, and protect the
endometrium.
What screening test should be performed regularly for an adult with diabetes to monitor
early signs of nephropathy?
Answer: Urine dipstick for protein.
Rationale: Proteinuria, as detected through urinalysis, is the most sensitive indicator of diabetic
nephropathy at the nephron level.
What is the starting dose of levothyroxine for an elderly adult with a BMI of 20?
Answer: 25 mcg.
Rationale: The best practice for treating hypothyroidism in elderly patients is to start with a low
dose (25 mcg) to reduce the risk of over-dosing and allow for gradual dose adjustment.
What laboratory test should be ordered for a patient with low TSH and thyroid
tenderness?
Answer: Triiodothyronine (T3) and free thyroxine (FT4).
Rationale: A low TSH level suggests hyperthyroidism, and testing for T3 and FT4 will confirm
the diagnosis, particularly if the patient exhibits symptoms like goiter or palpitations.
Which of the following is not a symptom of hypocalcemia?
Answer: Visual field deficits.
Rationale: Visual field deficits are more likely associated with a pituitary adenoma, while other
symptoms listed are related to hypocalcemia.
For a patient with type 2 diabetes and good control, when should the next follow-up
appointment be scheduled?
