CSMLS Complete Terms to Know for EXAM Preparations

CSMLS Complete Terms to Know for EXAM Preparations CSMLS Complete Terms to Know for EXAM Preparations F - C correct answer 5/9 (F - 32) C - F correct answer 9/5C+32 K = C correct answer K = C + 273 Deca correct answer 10^1 Hecto correct answer 10^2 Kilo correct answer 10^3 Mega correct answer 10^6 Giga correct answer 10^9 Tera correct answer 10^12 Peta correct answer 10^15 Exa correct answer 10^18 Deci correct answer 10^-1 Centi correct answer 10^-2 Milli correct answer 10^-3 Micro correct answer 10^-6 Nano correct answer 10^-9 Pico correct answer 10^-12 Femto correct answer 10^-15 Alto correct answer 10^-18 Heparin Uses correct answer chemistry, plasma testing, pregnancy, electrolytes, venous gases, ammonia, osmotic testing Urine Plates correct answer SBAP, MAC Mac conditions correct answer 35C, aerobic SBAP conditions correct answer 35C aerobic Wound plates correct answer SBAP, CNA, MAC CNA conditions correct answer 35C aerobic Anaerobic Wound Plates correct answer anaerobic agar, brucella, anaerobic 48 hrs Brucella conditions correct answer 35C anaerobic 48 hours Brucella Medium correct answer enriched medium - pneumococci, streptococci Mac medium correct answer selective/differential medium, grows lactose fermenters crystal violet and bile salts inhibit gram + CNA medium correct answer selective medium Basic media correct answer nutrient agar, trypticase soy agar, blood agar bases, brain heart infusion Enriched media correct answer blood agar, chocolate agar, fildes agar, loefflers slants Enrichment media correct answer always FLUID, selenite F, 6.5% NACL Selective media correct answer CNA, PEA, thayer martin Selective/Differential Media correct answer Mac (prevents growth of gram +) Hektoen, SS agar (salmonella) Meuller-Hinton agar correct answer non selective/differential, supports all growth, contains starches which absorb toxins from bacteria so no interference with antibiotics disks Composition of Media correct answer water, peptones, agar, buffers, salt Additional ingredients of Media correct answer carbs, ph indicators, blood products, extracts, supplements and selective agents Genital Vag - Non pregnant Media correct answer Trichomonas wet prep Genital Vag - Pregnant Plates correct answer CNA - gbs screen, 35C aerobic Genital Cervix/urethral Plates correct answer CNA GC Agar both 35C 5-10% CO2 48 hours NSBF plates correct answer SBAP, Chocolate, anaerobic brucella 5-10% CO2 72 hrs anaerobic 48hrs Chocolate Media correct answer enriched medium Respiratory Plates correct answer Throat - CNA 35C anaerobic 24 hours Sputum Plates correct answer SBAP or CNA Choc or MAC 35C 5-10% CO2 Fecal Plates correct answer Mac, Smac, Hektoen, CIN, CAmpy, GN broth CIN media correct answer yersinia, RT (28-30C) aerobic 48 hours Campy media correct answer 42C microaerophilic 48 hours Hektoen Media correct answer 35C 24 hours, rt 24 hrs aerobic Nosocomial infections - Nasal screen Plates correct answer MRSA or VRE 35C aerobic 48 hours Nosocomial Infection - FECAL Vre, ESBL screens correct answer selective agar 35C all aerobic 48 hours GRam stain required correct answer Wound, anaerobic wound, genital, NSBF, Sputum Gram stain not required correct answer fecal, throat, urine SBAP plate correct answer has hemolysis strep pneumoniae - alpha hemolysis (green) staph aureus - beta hemolysis (clearing) enterococcus fecaelis - gamma hemolysis (no) E. Coli - various hemolysis Mac plate correct answer inhibits gram + selects gram - (CNA OPPOSITE) grows proteus mirabilis LF = pink NLF = pale S. Mac Plate correct answer Salmonella = NLF pale Enterococcus Faecalis - no growth/ gram + coccus Hektoen Plate correct answer E. Coli = inhibited F orange colony Proteus miriabilis = NLF w/ H2S (pale green, blue/black center) Salmonella SP = NLF w/ H2S Blood Agar correct answer strep pyogenes, beige w/ beta hemolysis Nutrient Agar correct answer E.Coli & staph aureus growth as any Royal Blue Tube correct answer Used got toxicology, trace metals, and nutritional analysis Zinc/copper determinations in plasma cellular immunology studies NO MIXING REQUIRED Blood culture bottles correct answer bacterial growth medium & activated charcoal, inverted gently pink/orange - anaerobic blue - aerobic silver - pediatric Light Blue Tube correct answer Contains Sodium Citrate. Used in Coagulation dept. Tests for PT, PTT, Fibrinogen, clotting factors Inversions: 3-4 3.2% buffered Na Citrate HEMO Lavendar tube correct answer CBC, Blood smear, Platelets, SED rate, ESR, HCT, HGB, Reticulocyte count, anti rejection drugs, HGBA1C inversions: 8-10 K2EDTA commonly used Pink Tube correct answer blood bank, immunology ABO & rh, antibody screen, TAS, prenatal screen inversions: 8-10 ideally collect 2 Grey Tube correct answer Contains Sodium Flouride or K oxalate . Used in chemistry & tests for alcohol levels, toxins, & GTT, lactic acid (lactate) Inversions: 8-10 Dark Green Tube correct answer Additive: Heparin. Action: Inactivates certain clotting factors (not Calcium ion, called physiological anticoagulant). Three Types: Ammonium Heparin, Lithium Heparin, Sodium Heparin. Yields: whole blood. inversions: 8-10 Na heparin more common Na = A.A & cytogenic tests LI = chem tests VBG Gold Tube correct answer barrier gel, silica particles (SST) inversions: 5x Uses: TSH, PSA, mononucleosis, HIV, HEP, Li, Digoxin Light green tube correct answer Plasma Separating Tube (PST) with Lithium heparin inversions: 8-10 Uses: ALP, AST, ALT, CK, Albumin, Ca, Creatinine, glucose, Na, K, Cl, Urea (most chem tests) Black Tube correct answer Tests: Sedimentation rate (though often done with a lavender tube instead). ESR Additives: Sodium citrate 3.2% Specimen: Whole blood invert: 3-4x SPS tube correct answer micorbiology cultures, (aerobic + anaerobic) SPS = sodium polyanethole sulfonate for mycobacteria blood culture (AFB) Order of draw correct answer SPS, lt blue, red, sst, pst, lavendar, pink, oxalate Order of Draw for Capillary Specimens correct answer 1.) Lavender tube 2.) Tubes with other additives 3.) Tubes WITHOUT additives Cold agglutinin correct answer pneumonia, red tube agar solidifies at correct answer -38 to -42 C Average size media plate correct answer 20ml/plate, 100x15 Media poured at correct answer 45-50C Dispense media at correct answer 45C Routine MP of paraffin correct answer 55-58C Coarse particle size correct answer 6um Fine particle size correct answer 1um Wedge angle correct answer 14-15 degrees Bevel angle correct answer 27-32 degrees clearance angle correct answer 5-10 degrees Cryostat temperature correct answer -18 to -20C VIP pressure correct answer 30-450 nm Microtome cuts correct answer 4-6 um Paraffin Bath Temperature correct answer 45C Functions of lymphatic System correct answer fluid balance, fat absorption, defense/protection Thoracic duct correct answer receives lymph from the left side of the head, neck, chest, abdomen, left arm, and lower extremities right lymphatic duct correct answer receives lymph from the right upper part of the body Spleen functions correct answer destroy old red blood cells, produce antibodies, store red blood cells, filter microorganism Lines of defense in the body correct answer barriers, phagocytes, natural killer cells (lymphs), inflammation, fever, interferon(prevents virus'), complement (w/ immune rxn) Diastole correct answer Relaxation of the heart, atria fill w/ blood systole correct answer Contraction of the heart bicuspid valve correct answer valve between the left atrium and the left ventricle. aka mitral closed when LV pumps blood pulmonary valve correct answer A semilunar valve between the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery. closed when RV relaxing Tricuspid valve correct answer valve between the right atrium and the right ventricle closed when RV contracts Resident Flora correct answer permanent residents of skin, not readily removable by hand washing, nonpathogenic Transient Flora correct answer pathogenic, loosely attached to skin, easily removed, picked up by direct contact Standard Precautions correct answer a set of infection control practices used to prevent transmission of diseases that can be acquired by contact with blood, body fluids, non-intact skin (including rashes), and mucous membranes. Tourniquet cleaned with correct answer 70-90% ethyl alcohol (antiseptic) Skin cleaned with correct answer 70-90% ethyl alcohol Lab bench Cleaned with correct answer 1% bleach Metal surfaces cleaned with correct answer 2% gluteraldehyde Size of bacteria/spores correct answer 0.3-20 um size of viruses correct answer 0.003-0.05um Diagnostic testing correct answer used to determine a specific disease condition or possible illness Therapeutic Testing correct answer testing used to monitor a condition or level of meds Clinical Medicine correct answer care for sick, composed of detection diagnosis, prognosis and therapy Preventative medicine correct answer medicine that emphasizes a healthy lifestyle that will prevent poor health before it occurs CARE FOR WELL Modes of entry correct answer inhalation, ingestion, absorption, injection Antiseptics correct answer Solutions that are applied directly to the skin and prevent or slow the growth of pathogens. H2O2, iodine, 1-2% phenol, 70% alcohols Disinfectants correct answer used on inanimate objects Sodium hypochlorite, 1% bleach Gluteraldehyde correct answer A chemical fixative often used in the preparation of tissue for electron microscopy used on metals 2% solutions store in dark Autoclave correct answer 30-60 mins, 121C, 103.4 KPA components of blood correct answer cellular portion and fluid portion cellular portion of blood correct answer erythrocytes, leukocytes, platelets 40-50% Fluid portion of blood correct answer antibodies, coag factors, 90% H2o 10% proteins (albumin, globulin, fibrinogen, carbs, vitamins, hormones, enzymes, lipids, salts)55-60% Ratio of Blood cells correct answer 1 WBC : 30 PLTS : 500 RBCS Functions of blood correct answer transportation, regulation, protection, aid in coag Plasma correct answer contains fibrinogen, for coag tests 3 layers (RBCS, WBCS, plasma) Serum correct answer no fibrinogen, forms clot, clot contracts expressses serum. For chem serology & blood bank 2 layers blood clot and serum Do we perform differentials on buffy coat correct answer no What anticoagulant is used for transfusion correct answer CPDA-AS (citrate phosphate dextrose adenosine1) Forming a clot correct answer Plts form primary plug, coag factors activated, coag begins and end product fibrinogen is converted to fibrin to forma mesh network (clot) Defibrination correct answer use beads/rods and rotate blood in a glass container then centrifuge serum and cells for people with low WBCS because higher WBC concentration Intrinsic pathway of coagulation correct answer in vascular system, aPTT Intrinsic Factors correct answer f 12, f 11, (CA), f 9, PLT f3, f 8 extrinsic pathway of coagulation correct answer external trauma/ tissue injury PT test Extrinsic factors correct answer tissue thromboplastin, CA, F7 Common Pathway of coagulation correct answer Factor X, (CA+ PLT F3), Factor V, PT - thrombin, fibrinogen - fibrin, CLOT EDTA correct answer ethylene diamine tetra acetic acid chelates CA preserves cell Na Citrate correct answer chelates CA, 3.2% preferred more gentle, Heparin correct answer hemo - osmotic fragility, LAP score chem - VBGS, Glucose, electrolytes ANTI THROMBIN - activates fibrinogen NaF antienolase correct answer prevents glycolysis, good for glucose for electrolytes not anticoagulant K oxalate anticoagulant correct answer chelates CA ACD/CPD correct answer donation bags, chelates CA, RBCS functions up to 42 days with addition of nutricell (acid citrate dextrose/citrate phosphate dextrose_ erythron correct answer total mass of circulating RBCs and erythropoietic tissue of bone marrow. There is usually a steady production that matches the destruction of RBCs proliferate correct answer to reproduce, increase, or spread rapidly differentiate correct answer cells change into specific cell types mature cells correct answer lose ability to proliferate and enter circulation pluripotential stem cells correct answer stem cell source of all blood cells Medullary hematopoiesis correct answer blood cell production in bone marrow reticuloendothelial system correct answer the system concerned with blood cell formation, phagocytic destruction of blood cells, and the metabolism of iron and pigment ME ratio correct answer 2:1 to 5:1 lymphs not included in this red marrow correct answer produces blood cells, active, hematopoietic Yellow marrow correct answer soft, fatty material found in the medullary cavity of long bones inactive, can convert to red marrow if in demand RBC lifespan correct answer 120 days neutrophil lifespan correct answer 10 hours Eosinophil lifespan correct answer 8 hours Basophil lifespan correct answer similar to neuts and eos .. unknown monocyte lifespan correct answer 3 days PLT lifespan correct answer 5-10 days heme portion of hemoglobin correct answer iron (ingestion) can be recycled + protoporphyrin (enzymes, erythropoeitin, vitb folic acid) globin portion of hemoglobin correct answer AA + RNA and enzymes HGB-F correct answer found in fetal development changes to hgbA 2 alpha and 2 gamma HGB-A correct answer 2 alpha and 2 beta Hgb-A2 correct answer 2 alpha and 2 delta hgb-s correct answer sickle cell anemia hgb-c correct answer crystal formation under microscope Carboxyhemoglobin correct answer Carbon monoxide bound with hemoglobin reversible Methemoglobin correct answer ferrous to ferric state, reversible Drabkin's solution correct answer used to measure HGB colourmetrically neutrophils correct answer bacterial infection, purple stain salmonella/strep, staph myeloid line eosinophils correct answer parasites, allergic reaction, pink/orange stain, worms/helminths/pinworms myeloid line Basophils correct answer allergies, mask, myeloid line Lymphocytes correct answer viral infections, no nucleus, bigger with virus lymph line Monocytes correct answer phagocytosis, when it kills ends up with vacuoles (usually dye) Manual Cell counts correct answer leukocytes, rbcs, plts, eosinos, abnormal/malignant cells Manual cell counts using correct answer whole blood, CSF, pleural, synovial, peritoneal and serous.. always premeasured reservoir WBC count correct answer diluting fluids: turks fluid, acetic acid, gentian violet DF: thoma= 20, reservoir = 100 PLT count correct answer diluting fluids: 1% ammonium oxalate DF= 100 EOS Count correct answer diluting fluid: pilots soln, 1% phloxines DF: 32 Improved Neubauer hemocytometer correct answer high concentrations (WBCS, PLTS) area of chamber: 9mm2 depth: 0.1mm Fuchs Rosenthal hemocytometer correct answer low concentrations (eos, body fluids) area: 16mm2 depth: 0.2mm Manual Red Cell Counts correct answer Diluting fluid: isotonic saline (dacies/gower) DF: 200 Automated cell counter we use correct answer Impedance cell counting, coulter. Detection and measurement of electrical resistance Types of Automated cell counters correct answer impedance cell counter, laser optic cell counter, flowcytometry Correction formula of WBC for nRBC correct answer ( # WBC counted (diff=100) / #of wbc + nrbcs counter ) x WBC instrument When do we correct WBCs with the formula correct answer when nrbcs are greater then 6 Peripheral blood smear stain correct answer romanowsky (wrights) Polychrome Stains correct answer romanowsky stain types, wrights/giemsa, leishmans, maygrunwald/giemsa Wright stain components correct answer methylene blue, eosin, absolute methanol, giemsa Differentials correct answer relative value x total #WBC -relative shown as % convert to decimal Stain required for Bone marrow correct answer Perls prussian blue for hemosiderin (form Fe takes in marrow) Main storage site for Iron correct answer Marrow Secondary storage site for iron correct answer liver Reticulocyte stain correct answer Supravital stain -new methylene blue - brilliant cresyl blue - nile blue sulfate New methylene blue procedure correct answer equal amount of blood to stain, RT 15 minutes, make smear air dry examined under oil immersion What requires oil immersion for examination correct answer reticulocytes Calculating REtics correct answer % retic = # retics/ 10 absolute = %retic x 10 x RBC count MCV correct answer Hct/RBC x 1000 MCH correct answer Hgb/RBC count MCHC correct answer hgb/hct ESR is reported correct answer mm/hr ESR correct answer erythrocyte sedimentation rate not diagnostic, indicator ESR procedures correct answer westergren (sediplast), Wintrobe Westergren method correct answer - standard method for ESR - smaller diameter tube - blood is diluted with saline or sodium citrate in a ratio of 4 parts blood to 1 part diluent, prior to setting up the ESR - pipette is filled with diluted blood and allowed to stand for 60 minutes lg tube, 0.8ml blood required Wintrobe method correct answer method to measure ESR using a disposable tube calibrated from 0 to 100 EDTA, requires 1ml blood, less accurate Phase 1 clot formation correct answer Pt converting principle, generation of formation of extrinsic and intrinsic thromboplastin ends at factor X Phase 2 clot formation correct answer conversion of prothrombin to thrombin in thromboplastin presence F II Phase 3 clot formation correct answer begins at F1 fibrinogen to fibrin mesh formation Plt poor plasma correct answer centrifuge Na citrate 10 minutes 5000 RPM PLT rich plasma correct answer for plt studies, centrifuge 10 minutes 1000 RPM convert if centrifuge doesnt display XG or RPM RCF to RPM optimum ph for coagulation studies correct answer 7.2 Prothrombin Test correct answer reagent added to patients plasma and clot timed, citrate plasma required reagent: simplastin (ca and tissue thromboplastin to activate extrinsic path) PT screens for: correct answer extrinsic factor deficiencies Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) correct answer 3.2% citrate plasma reagent: activating substance (platetin, silica) plt f3 0.025M CaCl2 aPTT screens for correct answer intrinsic factor deficiencies Methods of bleeding time test correct answer ivy - BP cuff and lancet, accurate duke - earlobe, easy Devices used for Bleeding time test correct answer simplate (we used) and template D-dimer test correct answer breakdown products of fibrin clot + test = is/was clot in body CT scan to follow Heparin therapy correct answer intrinsic Coumadin therapy correct answer extrinsic Hemophilia B correct answer Factor IX deficiency Christmas disease Von Willebrand Disease correct answer combined deficiency of part of fVIII and defect in plt aggregation hemophilia A correct answer Factor VIII deficiency carried by females, common in men Tourniquet test correct answer determines capillary fragility measures # of petechiae in 2" area apply BP cuff for 5 minutes at 1/2 patients diastolic and systolic Urinalysis can detect brain damage from correct answer PKU and galactosemia Glomerulus correct answer filtration Tubules correct answer reabsorption and secretion Routine Urinalysis correct answer physical chemical and microscopic Physical Characteristics of Urine correct answer colour, odor, turbidity, SG, volume, PH Phenylketonuria correct answer musty, mouselike smell Isovaleric acidemia correct answer sweaty feet odor, enzyme deficiency due to protein not breaking down Alcaptonuria correct answer brown/black, lacks enzyme to digest phenalyline and tyrosine. asymptomatic until adulthood Urine specimens correct answer random, 1st morning, 2nd voided, postprandial, timed Confirmatory test for Ketones correct answer acetest for acetone and acetoacetic acid Confirmatory test for Bilirubin correct answer Ictotest Reduction tests for glucose correct answer benedicts, clinitest reagent tablets Confirmatory test Proteins correct answer turbidometric test based on precipitation of proteins other then albumin. strips are for albumin Uric acid correct answer crystals found normally in gout/fever leukemia seen with ammonium biurate Crystals found in urine indicating Liver disease correct answer tyrosine and leucine Ammonium urates correct answer crystals, no significance k, Mg, Na, Ca Ca oxalate correct answer crystals x-shaped, from oxalate rich foods abnormal in diabetes Casts are formed from what protein correct answer Tamm horsfall, forms meshwork to trap cells Hyaline casts correct answer after stress/exercise, 1-2 non significant, most common RBC/WBC casts correct answer damage or inflammation in kidneys Other casts correct answer renal tubular, waxy, fatty lactosuria correct answer lactose in urine, in late pregnancy or early lactation, cant gain weight Galactosuria correct answer metabolic error, no enzyme to metabolize galactose, galactose in the urine Glycosuria correct answer glucose in the urine protein confirmatory test correct answer Sulfosalicylic Acid (SSA) bence jones REnal screening TEsts correct answer BUN, serum creatinine, serum uric acid, other (CA,P,Na,K,A/g ratio) urinary constituents correct answer most common: Na, K, Cl, Ca, P Na - urinary constituent correct answer maintains acid-base balance regulator of bodies ability to retain water K- urinary constituent correct answer bodys buffering system, maintains electrolyte balance in cellular fluids External gas exchange correct answer across membrane in lungs Internal Gas exchange correct answer occurs in the tissues as oxygen diffuses from the blood to the cells, whereas carbon dioxide travels from the cells into the blood TLC correct answer total lung capacity volume in lungs at max inflation sum of vc and RV Vt correct answer tidal volume - amount of air inhaled and exhaled during a normal ventilation MRV correct answer minute respiratory volume, amount of air inhaled and exhaled in 1 minute MRV = TV x RPM ave 12-20 IVC correct answer Inspiratory vital capacity: the maximum volume of air inhaled from the point of maximum expiration VC correct answer vital capacity - amount of air involved in deepest inhalation with forceful exhalation sum of VT, IRV, ERV IRV correct answer Inspiratory reserve volume: the maximal volume that can be inhaled from the end-inspiratory level ERV correct answer the maximum volume of gas that can be expired during forced breathing in addition to tidal volume Rv correct answer residual volume - amount of air remaining in lungs at the end of maximal expiration FVC correct answer forced vital capacity - amount of gas that can be forcibly and rapidly exhaled after a full inspiration FEV correct answer forced expiratory volume Restrictive pulmonary disease correct answer FVC Obstructive pulmonary disease correct answer FEV Pancreas cells and functions? correct answer Islets of Langerhaans = Beta Cells = Insulin Aciner Cells = 1-2/L pancreatic juice acini cells: 99% endocrine release pancreatic juices Krebs cycle correct answer pyruvic acid is broken down into carbon dioxide in a series of energy-extracting reactions electron transport chain correct answer produces 36 ATP molecules