NCSBN TEST BANK, NCLEX TEST BANK FOR NCLEX-RN

1. A 43-year-old African American male is admitted with sickle cell anemia. The nurse plans to assess circulation in the lower extremities every two hours. Which of the following outcome criteria? would the nurse use? A. Body temperature of 99°F or less B. Toes moved in active range of motion C. Sensation reported when soles of feet are touched D. Capillary refill of < 3 seconds 2. A 30-year-old male from Haiti is brought to the emergency department in sickle cell crisis. What is the best position for this client? A. Side-lying with knees flexed B. Knee-chest C. High Fowler’s with knees flexed D. Semi-Fowler’s with legs extended on the bed 3. A 25-year-old male is admitted in sickle cell crisis. Which of the following interventions would be of highest priority for this client? A. Taking hourly blood pressures with mechanical cuff B. Encouraging fluid intake of at least 200mL per hour C. Position in high Fowler’s with knee gatch raised D. Administering Tylenol as ordered 4. Which of the following foods would the nurse encourage the client in sickle cell crisis to eat? lOMoAR cPSD| 4330138 A. Steak B. Cottage cheese C. Popsicle D. Lima beans Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 225 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 225 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 225 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 225 Quick Check 170 Chapter 3 5. A newly admitted client has sickle cell crisis. He is complaining of pain in his feet and hands. The nurse’s assessment findings include a pulse oximetry of 92. Assuming that all the following interventions are ordered, which should be done first? A. Adjust the room temperature B. Give a bolus of IV fluids C. Start O 2 D. Administer meperidine (Demerol) 75mg IV push 6. The nurse is instructing a client with iron-deficiency anemia. Which of the following meal plans would the nurse expect the client to select? A. Roast beef, gelatin salad, green beans, and peach pie B. Chicken salad sandwich, coleslaw, French fries, ice cream lOMoAR cPSD| 4330138 C. Egg salad on wheat bread, carrot sticks, lettuce salad, raisin pie D. Pork chop, creamed potatoes, corn, and coconut cake 7. Clients with sickle cell anemia are taught to avoid activities that cause hypoxia and hypoxemia. Which of the following activities would the nurse recommend? A. A family vacation in the Rocky Mountains B. Chaperoning the local boys club on a snow-skiing trip C. Traveling by airplane for business trips D. A bus trip to the Museum of Natural History 8. The nurse is conducting an admission assessment of a client with vitamin B12 deficiency. Which finding reinforces the diagnosis of B12 deficiency? A. Enlarged spleen B. Elevated blood pressure C. Bradycardia D. Beefy tongue 9. The body part that would most likely display jaundice in the darkskinned individual is the: A. Conjunctiva of the eye B. Soles of the feet C. Roof of the mouth D. Shins Quick Check Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 225 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 225 Quick Answer: 223 lOMoAR cPSD| 4330138 Detailed Answer: 225 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 225 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 225Practice Exam 3 and Rationales 171 10. The nurse is conducting a physical assessment on a client with anemia. Which of the following clinical manifestations would be most indicative of the anemia? A. BP 146/88 B. Respirations 28 shallow C. Weight gain of 10 pounds in six months D. Pink complexion 11. The nurse is teaching the client with polycythemia vera about prevention of complications of the disease. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching? A. “I will drink 500mL of fluid or less each day.” B. “I will wear support hose.” C. “I will check my blood pressure regularly.” D. “I will report ankle edema.” 12. A 33-year-old male is being evaluated for possible acute leukemia. Which of the following findings is most likely related to the diagnosis of leukemia? A. The client collects stamps as a hobby. B. The client recently lost his job as a postal worker. C. The client had radiation for treatment of Hodgkin’s disease as a teenager. D. The client’s brother had leukemia as a child. 13. Where is the best site for examining for the presence of petechiae in an African American client? A. The abdomen lOMoAR cPSD| 4330138 B. The thorax C. The earlobes D. The soles of the feet 14. The client is being evaluated for possible acute leukemia. Which inquiry by the nurse is most important? A. “Have you noticed a change in sleeping habits recently?” B. “Have you had a respiratory infection in the last six months?” C. “Have you lost weight recently?” D. “Have you noticed changes in your alertness?” Quick Check Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 226 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 226 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 226 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 226 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 226172 Chapter 3 15. Which of the following would be the priority nursing diagnosis for the adult client with acute leukemia? A. Oral mucous membrane, altered related to chemotherapy B. Risk for injury related to thrombocytopenia C. Fatigue related to the disease process D. Interrupted family processes related to life-threatening lOMoAR cPSD| 4330138 illness of a family member 16. A 21-year-old male with Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a senior at the local university. He is engaged to be married and is to begin a new job upon graduation. Which of the following diagnoses would be a priority for this client? A. Sexual dysfunction related to radiation therapy B. Anticipatory grieving related to terminal illness C. Tissue integrity related to prolonged bed rest D. Fatigue related to chemotherapy 17. A client has autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura. To determine the client’s response to treatment, the nurse would monitor: A. Platelet count B. White blood cell count C. Potassium levels D. Partial prothrombin time (PTT) 18. The home health nurse is visiting a client with autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura (ATP). The client’s platelet count currently is 80,000. It will be most important to teach the client and family about: A. Bleeding precautions B. Prevention of falls C. Oxygen therapy D. Conservation of energy 19. The client has surgery for removal of a Prolactinoma. Which of the following interventions would be appropriate for this client? A. Place the client in Trendelenburg position for postural drainage. B. Encourage coughing and deep breathing every two hours. lOMoAR cPSD| 4330138 C. Elevate the head of the bed 30°. D. Encourage the Valsalva maneuver for bowel movements. Quick Check Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 226 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 226 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 226 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 226 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 226Practice Exam 3 and Rationales 173 20. The client with a history of diabetes insipidus is admitted with polyuria, polydipsia, and mental confusion. The priority intervention for this client is: A. Measure the urinary output. B. Check the vital signs. C. Encourage increased fluid intake. D. Weigh the client. 21. A client with hemophilia has a nosebleed. Which nursing action is most appropriate to control the bleeding? A. Place the client in a sitting position. B. Administer acetaminophen (Tylenol). C. Pinch the soft lower part of the nose. D. Apply ice packs to the forehead. 22. A client has had a unilateral adrenalectomy to remove a tumor. The most important measurement in the immediate post-operative period for the nurse to take is: lOMoAR cPSD| 4330138 A. The blood pressure B. The temperature C. The urinary output D. The specific gravity of the urine 23. A client with Addison’s disease has been admitted with a history of nausea and vomiting for the past three days. The client is receiving IV glucocorticoids (Solu-Medrol). Which of the following interventions would the nurse implement? A. Glucometer readings as ordered B. Intake/output measurements C. Evaluating the sodium and potassium levels D. Daily weights 24. A client had a total thyroidectomy yesterday. The client is complaining of tingling around the mouth and in the fingers and toes. What would the nurses’ next action be? A. Obtain a crash cart. B. Check the calcium level. C. Assess the dressing for drainage. D. Assess the blood pressure for hypertension. Quick Check Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 227 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 227 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 227 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 227 lOMoAR cPSD| 4330138 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 227174 Chapter 3 25. A 32-year-old mother of three is brought to the clinic. Her pulse is 52, there is a weight gain of 30 pounds in four months, and the client is wearing two sweaters. The client is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Which of the following nursing diagnoses is of highest priority? A. Impaired physical mobility related to decreased endurance B. Hypothermia r/t decreased metabolic rate C. Disturbed thought processes r/t interstitial edema D. Decreased cardiac output r/t bradycardia 26. The client presents to the clinic with a serum cholesterol of 275mg/dL and is placed on rosuvastatin (Crestor). Which instruction should be given to the client taking rosuvastatin (Crestor)? A. Report muscle weakness to the physician. B. Allow six months for the drug to take effect. C. Take the medication with fruit juice. D. Report difficulty sleeping. 27. The client is admitted to the hospital with hypertensive crises. Diazoxide (Hyperstat) is ordered. During administration, the nurse should: A. Utilize an infusion pump. B. Check the blood glucose level. C. Place the client in Trendelenburg position. D. Cover the solution with foil. 28. The six-month-old client with a ventral septal defect is receiving Digitalis for regulation of his heart rate. Which finding should be lOMoAR cPSD| 4330138 reported to the doctor? A. Blood pressure of 126/80 B. Blood glucose of 110mg/dL C. Heart rate of 60bpm D. Respiratory rate of 30 per minute 29. The client admitted with angina is given a prescription for nitroglycerine. The client should be instructed to: A. Replenish his supply every three months. B. Take one every 15 minutes if pain occurs. C. Leave the medication in the brown bottle. D. Crush the medication and take with water. Quick Check Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 227 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 227 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 227 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 227 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 228Practice Exam 3 and Rationales 175 30. The client is instructed regarding foods that are low in fat and cholesterol. Which diet selection is lowest in saturated fats? A. Macaroni and cheese B. Shrimp with rice C. Turkey breast D. Spaghetti with meat sauce lOMoAR cPSD| 4330138 31. The client is admitted with left-sided congestive heart failure. In assessing the client for edema, the nurse should check the: A. Feet B. Neck C. Hands D. Sacrum 32. The nurse is checking the client’s central venous pressure. The nurse should place the zero of the manometer at the: A. Phlebostatic axis B. PMI C. Erb’s point D. Tail of Spence 33. The physician orders lisinopril (Zestril) and furosemide (Lasix) to be administered concomitantly to the client with hypertension. The nurse should: A. Question the order. B. Administer the medications. C. Administer separately. D. Contact the pharmacy. 34. The best method of evaluating the amount of peripheral edema is: A. Weighing the client daily B. Measuring the extremity C. Measuring the intake and output D. Checking for pitting Quick Check Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 228 Quick Answer: 223 lOMoAR cPSD| 4330138 Detailed Answer: 228 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 228 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 228 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 228176 Chapter 3 35. A client with vaginal cancer is being treated with a radioactive vaginal implant. The client’s husband asks the nurse if he can spend the night with his wife. The nurse should explain that: A. Overnight stays by family members is against hospital policy. B. There is no need for him to stay because staffing is adequate. C. His wife will rest much better knowing that he is at home. D. Visitation is limited to 30 minutes when the implant is in place. 36. The nurse is caring for a client hospitalized with a facial stroke. Which diet selection would be suited to the client? A. Roast beef sandwich, potato chips, pickle spear, iced tea B. Split pea soup, mashed potatoes, pudding, milk C. Tomato soup, cheese toast, Jello, coffee D. Hamburger, baked beans, fruit cup, iced tea 37. The physician has prescribed Novalog insulin for a client with diabetes mellitus. Which statement indicates that the client knows when the peak action of the insulin occurs? lOMoAR cPSD| 4330138 A. “I will make sure I eat breakfast within 10 minutes of taking my insulin.” B. “I will need to carry candy or some form of sugar with me all the time.” C. “I will eat a snack around three o’clock each afternoon.” D. “I can save my dessert from supper for a bedtime snack.” 38. The nurse is teaching basic infant care to a group of first-time parents. The nurse should explain that a sponge bath is recommended for the first two weeks of life because: A. New parents need time to learn how to hold the baby. B. The umbilical cord needs time to separate. C. Newborn skin is easily traumatized by washing. D. The chance of chilling the baby outweighs the benefits of bathing. Quick Check Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 228 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 228 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 229 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 229Practice Exam 3 and Rationales 177 39. A client with leukemia is receiving Trimetrexate. After reviewing the client’s chart, the physician orders Wellcovorin (leucovorin calcium). The rationale for administering leucovorin calcium to a client receiving Trimetrexate is to: A. Treat iron-deficiency anemia caused by chemotherapeutic agents lOMoAR cPSD| 4330138 B. Create a synergistic effect that shortens treatment time C. Increase the number of circulating neutrophils D. Reverse drug toxicity and prevent tissue damage 40. A four-month-old is brought to the well-baby clinic for immunization. In addition to the DPT and polio vaccines, the baby should receive: A. Hib titer B. Mumps vaccine C. Hepatitis B vaccine D. MMR 41. The physician has prescribed Nexium (esomeprazole) for a client with erosive gastritis. The nurse should administer the medication: A. 30 minutes before a meal B. With each meal C. In a single dose at bedtime D. 30 minutes after meals 42. A client on the psychiatric unit is in an uncontrolled rage and is threatening other clients and staff. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take? A. Call security for assistance and prepare to sedate the client. B. Tell the client to calm down and ask him if he would like to play cards. C. Tell the client that if he continues his behavior he will be punished. D. Leave the client alone until he calms down. Quick Check Quick Answer: 223 lOMoAR cPSD| 4330138 Detailed Answer: 229 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 229 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 229 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 229178 Chapter 3 43. When the nurse checks the fundus of a client on the first postpartum day, she notes that the fundus is firm, is at the level of the umbilicus, and is displaced to the right. The next action the nurse should take is to: A. Check the client for bladder distention. B. Assess the blood pressure for hypotension. C. Determine whether an oxytocic drug was given. D. Check for the expulsion of small clots. 44. A client is admitted to the hospital with a temperature of 99.8°F, complaints of blood-tinged hemoptysis, fatigue, and night sweats. The client’s symptoms are consistent with a diagnosis of: A. Pneumonia B. Reaction to antiviral medication C. Tuberculosis D. Superinfection due to low CD4 count 45. The client is seen in the clinic for treatment of migraine headaches. The drug Imitrex (sumatriptan succinate) is prescribed for the client. Which of the following in the client’s history should be reported to the doctor? A. Diabetes B. Prinzmetal’s angina lOMoAR cPSD| 4330138 C. Cancer D. Cluster headaches 46. The client with suspected meningitis is admitted to the unit. The doctor is performing an assessment to determine meningeal irritation and spinal nerve root inflammation. A positive Kernig’s sign is charted if the nurse notes: A. Pain on flexion of the hip and knee B. Nuchal rigidity on flexion of the neck C. Pain when the head is turned to the left side D. Dizziness when changing positions Quick Check Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 229 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 229 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 229 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 229Practice Exam 3 and Rationales 179 47. The client with Alzheimer’s disease is being assisted with activities of daily living when the nurse notes that the client uses her toothbrush to brush her hair. The nurse is aware that the client is exhibiting: A. Agnosia B. Apraxia C. Anomia D. Aphasia 48. The client with dementia is experiencing confusion late in the afternoon and before bedtime. The nurse is aware that the client is lOMoAR cPSD| 4330138 experiencing what is known as: A. Chronic fatigue syndrome B. Normal aging C. Sundowning D. Delusions 49. The client with confusion says to the nurse, “I haven’t had anything to eat all day long. When are they going to bring breakfast?” The nurse saw the client in the day room eating breakfast with other clients 30 minutes before this conversation. Which response would be best for the nurse to make? A. “You know you had breakfast 30 minutes ago.” B. “I am so sorry that they didn’t get you breakfast. I’ll report it to the charge nurse.” C. “I’ll get you some juice and toast. Would you like something else?” D. “You will have to wait a while; lunch will be here in a little while.” 50. The doctor has prescribed Exelon (rivastigmine) for the client with Alzheimer’s disease. Which side effect is most often associated with this drug? A. Urinary incontinence B. Headaches C. Confusion D. Nausea Quick Check Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 229 Quick Answer: 223 lOMoAR cPSD| 4330138 Detailed Answer: 230 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 230 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 230180 Chapter 3 51. A client is admitted to the labor and delivery unit in active labor. During examination, the nurse notes a papular lesion on the perineum. Which initial action is most appropriate? A. Document the finding. B. Report the finding to the doctor. C. Prepare the client for a C-section. D. Continue primary care as prescribed. 52. A client with a diagnosis of HPV is at risk for which of the following? A. Hodgkin’s lymphoma B. Cervical cancer C. Multiple myeloma D. Ovarian cancer 53. During the initial interview, the client reports that she has a lesion on the perineum. Further investigation reveals a small blister on the vulva that is painful to touch. The nurse is aware that the most likely source of the lesion is: A. Syphilis B. Herpes C. Gonorrhea D. Condylomata 54. A client visiting a family planning clinic is suspected of having an STI. The best diagnostic test for treponema pallidum is: lOMoAR cPSD| 4330138 A. Venereal Disease Research Lab (VDRL) B. Rapid plasma reagin (RPR) C. Fluorescent treponemal antibody (FTA) D. Thayer-Martin culture (TMC) 55. A 15-year-old primigravida is admitted with a tentative diagnosis of HELLP syndrome. Which laboratory finding is associated with HELLP syndrome? A. Elevated blood glucose B. Elevated platelet count C. Elevated creatinine clearance D. Elevated hepatic enzymes Quick Check Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 230 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 230 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 230 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 230 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 230Practice Exam 3 and Rationales 181 56. The nurse is assessing the deep tendon reflexes of a client with preeclampsia. Which method is used to elicit the biceps reflex? A. The nurse places her thumb on the muscle inset in the antecubital space and taps the thumb briskly with the reflex hammer. B. The nurse loosely suspends the client’s arm in an lOMoAR cPSD| 4330138 open hand while tapping the back of the client’s elbow. C. The nurse instructs the client to dangle her legs as the nurse strikes the area below the patella with the blunt side of the reflex hammer. D. The nurse instructs the client to place her arms loosely at her side as the nurse strikes the muscle insert just above the wrist. 57. A primigravida with diabetes is admitted to the labor and delivery unit at 34 weeks gestation. Which doctor’s order should the nurse question? A. Magnesium sulfate 4gm (25%) IV B. Brethine 10mcg IV C. Stadol 1mg IV push every 4 hours as needed prn for pain D. Ancef 2gm IVPB every 6 hours 58. A diabetic multigravida is scheduled for an amniocentesis at 32 weeks gestation to determine the L/S ratio and phosphatidyl glycerol level. The L/S ratio is 1:1 and the presence of phosphatidylglycerol is noted. The nurse’s assessment of this data is: A. The infant is at low risk for congenital anomalies. B. The infant is at high risk for intrauterine growth retardation. C. The infant is at high risk for respiratory distress syndrome. D. The infant is at high risk for birth trauma. 59. Which observation in the newborn of a diabetic mother would require immediate nursing intervention? A. Crying B. Wakefulness C. Jitteriness D. Yawning lOMoAR cPSD| 4330138 Quick Check Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 230 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 230 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 231 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 231182 Chapter 3 60. The nurse caring for a client receiving intravenous magnesium sulfate must closely observe for side effects associated with drug therapy. An expected side effect of magnesium sulfate is: A. Decreased urinary output B. Hypersomnolence C. Absence of knee jerk reflex D. Decreased respiratory rate 61. The client has elected to have epidural anesthesia to relieve labor pain. If the client experiences hypotension, the nurse would: A. Place her in Trendelenburg position. B. Decrease the rate of IV infusion. C. Administer oxygen per nasal cannula. D. Increase the rate of the IV infusion. 62. A client has cancer of the pancreas. The nurse should be most concerned about which nursing diagnosis? A. Alteration in nutrition B. Alteration in bowel elimination C. Alteration in skin integrity D. Ineffective individual coping lOMoAR cPSD| 4330138 63. The nurse is caring for a client with uremic frost. The nurse is aware that uremic frost is often seen in clients with: A. Severe anemia B. Arteriosclerosis C. Liver failure D. Parathyroid disorder 64. The client arrives in the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident. Nursing assessment findings include BP 80/34, pulse rate 120, and respirations 20. Which is the client’s most appropriate priority nursing diagnosis? A. Alteration in cerebral tissue perfusion B. Fluid volume deficit C. Ineffective airway clearance D. Alteration in sensory perception Quick Check Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 231 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 231 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 231 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 231 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 231Practice Exam 3 and Rationales 183 65. The home health nurse is visiting an 18-year-old with osteogenesis imperfecta. Which information obtained on the visit would cause the most concern? The client: A. Likes to play football B. Drinks carbonated drinks lOMoAR cPSD| 4330138 C. Has two sisters D. Is taking acetaminophen for pain 66. The nurse working the organ transplant unit is caring for a client with a white blood cell count of 450. During evening visitation, a visitor brings a basket of fruit. What action should the nurse take? A. Allow the client to keep the fruit. B. Place the fruit next to the bed for easy access by the client. C. Offer to wash the fruit for the client. D. Ask the family members to take the fruit home. 67. The nurse is caring for the client following a laryngectomy when suddenly the client becomes nonresponsive and pale, with a BP of 90/40. The initial nurse’s action should be to: A. Place the client in Trendelenburg position. B. Increase the infusion of normal saline. C. Administer atropine intravenously. D. Move the emergency cart to the bedside. 68. The client admitted two days earlier with a lung resection accidentally pulls out the chest tube. Which action by the nurse indicates understanding of the management of chest tubes? A. Order a chest x-ray. B. Reinsert the tube. C. Cover the insertion site with a Vaseline gauze. D. Call the doctor. 69. A client being treated with sodium warfarin (Coumadin) has a Protime of 120 seconds. Which intervention would be most important to include in the nursing care plan? A. Assess for signs of abnormal bleeding. lOMoAR cPSD| 4330138 B. Anticipate an increase in the Coumadin dosage. C. Instruct the client regarding the drug therapy. D. Increase the frequency of neurological assessments. Quick Check Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 231 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 231 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 231 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 231 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 231184 Chapter 3 70. Which selection would provide the most calcium for the client who is four months pregnant? A. A granola bar B. A bran muffin C. A cup of yogurt D. A glass of fruit juice 71. The client with preeclampsia is admitted to the unit with an order for magnesium sulfate. Which action by the nurse indicates the understanding of magnesium toxicity? A. The nurse performs a vaginal exam every 30 minutes. B. The nurse places a padded tongue blade at the bedside. C. The nurse inserts a Foley catheter. D. The nurse darkens the room. 72. The best size cathlon for administration of a blood transfusion to a lOMoAR cPSD| 4330138 six-year-old is: A. 18 gauge B. 19 gauge C. 22 gauge D. 20 gauge 73. A client is admitted to the unit two hours after an explosion causes burns to the face. The nurse would be most concerned with the client developing which of the following? A. Hypovolemia B. Laryngeal edema C. Hypernatremia D. Hyperkalemia 74. The client has recently been diagnosed with diabetes. Which of the following indicates understanding of the management of diabetes? A. The client selects a balanced diet from the menu. B. The client can tell the nurse the normal blood glucose level. C. The client asks for brochures on the subject of diabetes. D. The client demonstrates correct insulin injection technique. Quick Check Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 232 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 232 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 232 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 232 lOMoAR cPSD| 4330138 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 232Practice Exam 3 and Rationales 185 75. The client is admitted following cast application for a fractured ulna. Which finding should be reported to the doctor? A. Pain at the site B. Warm fingers C. Pulses rapid D. Paresthesia of the fingers 76. The client with AIDS should be taught to: A. Avoid warm climates. B. Refrain from taking herbals. C. Avoid exercising. D. Report any changes in skin color. 77. Which action by the healthcare worker indicates a need for further teaching? A. The nursing assistant ambulates the elderly client using a gait belt. B. The nurse wears goggles while performing a venopuncture. C. The nurse washes his hands after changing a dressing. D. The nurse wears gloves to monitor the IV infusion rate. 78. The client is having electroconvulsive therapy for treatment of severe depression. Prior to the ECT, the nurse should: A. Apply a tourniquet to the client’s arm. B. Administer an anticonvulsant medication. C. Ask the client if he is allergic to shellfish. D. Apply a blood pressure cuff to the arm. lOMoAR cPSD| 4330138 79. The five-year-old is being tested for enterobiasis (pinworms). Which symptom is associated with enterobiasis? A. Rectal itching B. Nausea C. Oral ulcerations D. Scalp itching Quick Check Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 232 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 232 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 232 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 232 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 232186 Chapter 3 80. The nurse is teaching the mother regarding treatment for pedicalosis capitis. Which instruction should be given regarding the medication? A. Treatment is not recommended for children less than 10 years of age. B. Bed linens should be washed in hot water. C. Medication therapy will continue for one year. D. Intravenous antibiotic therapy will be ordered. 81. The registered nurse is making assignments for the day. Which client should be assigned to the pregnant nurse? A. The client with HIV lOMoAR cPSD| 4330138 B. The client with a radium implant for cervical cancer C. The client with RSV (respiratory synctial virus) D. The client with cytomegalovirus 82. The nurse is planning room assignments for the day. Which client should be assigned to a private room if only one is available? A. The client with methicillin resistant-staphylococcus aureas (MRSA) B. The client with diabetes C. The client with pancreatitis D. The client with Addison’s disease 83. The doctor accidentally cuts the bowel during surgery. As a result of this action, the client develops an infection and suffers brain damage. The doctor can be charged with: A. Negligence B. Tort C. Assault D. Malpractice 84. Which assignment should not be performed by the nursing assistant? A. Feeding the client B. Bathing the client C. Obtaining a stool D. Administering a fleet enema Quick Check Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 232 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 232 Quick Answer: 223 lOMoAR cPSD| 4330138 Detailed Answer: 232 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 233 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 233Practice Exam 3 and Rationales 187 85. The mother calls the clinic to report that her newborn has a rash on his forehead and face. Which action is most appropriate? A. Tell the mother to wash the face with soap and apply powder. B. Tell her that 30% of newborns have a rash that will go away by one month of life. C. Report the rash to the doctor immediately. D. Ask the mother if anyone else in the family has had a rash in the last six months. 86. Which nurse should not be assigned to care for the client with a radium implant for vaginal cancer? A. The LPN who is six months postpartum B. The RN who is pregnant C. The RN who is allergic to iodine D. The RN with a three-year-old at home 87. Which information should be reported to the state Board of Nursing? A. The facility fails to provide literature in both Spanish and English. B. The narcotic count has been incorrect on the unit for the past three days. C. The client fails to receive an itemized account of his bills and services received during his hospital stay. lOMoAR cPSD| 4330138 D. The nursing assistant assigned to the client with hepatitis fails to feed the client and give the bath. 88. The nurse is suspected of charting medication administration that he did not give. After talking to the nurse, the charge nurse should: A. Call the Board of Nursing. B. File a formal reprimand. C. Terminate the nurse. D. Charge the nurse with a tort. Quick Check Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 233 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 233 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 233 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 233188 Chapter 3 89. The home health nurse is planning for the day’s visits. Which client should be seen first? A. The 78-year-old who had a gastrectomy three weeks ago and has a PEG tube B. The five-month-old discharged one week ago with pneumonia who is being treated with amoxicillin liquid suspension C. The 50-year-old with MRSA being treated with Vancomycin via a PICC line D. The 30-year-old with an exacerbation of multiple sclerosis being treated with cortisone via a centrally lOMoAR cPSD| 4330138 placed venous catheter 90. The emergency room is flooded with clients injured in a tornado. Which clients can be assigned to share a room in the emergency department during the disaster? A. A client having auditory hallucinations and the client with ulcerative colitis B. The client who is pregnant and the client with a broken arm C. A child who is cyanotic with severe dypsnea and a client with a frontal head injury D. The client who arrives with a large puncture wound to the abdomen and the client with chest pain 91. Before administering eardrops to a toddler, the nurse should recognize that it is essential to consider which of the following? A. The age of the child B. The child’s weight C. The developmental level of the child D. The IQ of the child 92. The nurse is discussing meal planning with the mother of a twoyear-old. Which of the following statements, if made by the mother, would require a need for further instruction? A. “It is okay to give my child white grape juice for breakfast.” B. “My child can have a grilled cheese sandwich for lunch.” C. “We are going on a camping trip this weekend, and I have bought hot dogs to grill for his lunch.” D. “For a snack, my child can have ice cream.” Quick Check Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 233 lOMoAR cPSD| 4330138 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 233 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 233 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 233Practice Exam 3 and Rationales 189 93. A client with AIDS has a viral load of 200 copies per ml. The nurse should interpret this finding as: A. The client is at risk for opportunistic diseases. B. The client is no longer communicable. C. The client’s viral load is extremely low so he is relatively free of circulating virus. D. The client’s T-cell count is extremely low. 94. The client has an order for sliding scale insulin at 1900 hours and Lantus insulin at the same hour. The nurse should: A. Administer the two medications together. B. Administer the medications in two injections. C. Draw up the Lantus insulin and then the regular insulin and administer them together. D. Contact the doctor because these medications should not be given to the same client. 95. A priority nursing diagnosis for a child being admitted from surgery following a tonsillectomy is: A. Altered nutrition B. Impaired communication C. Risk for injury/aspiration D. Altered urinary elimination 96. What would the nurse expect the admitting assessment to reveal in a client with glomerulonephritis? A. Hypertension lOMoAR cPSD| 4330138 B. Lassitude C. Fatigue D. Vomiting and diarrhea 97. Which action is contraindicated in the client with epiglottis? A. Ambulation B. Oral airway assessment using a tongue blade C. Placing a blood pressure cuff on the arm D. Checking the deep tendon reflexes. Quick Check Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 233 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 234 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 234 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 234 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 234190 Chapter 3 98. A 25-year-old client with a goiter is admitted to the unit. What would the nurse expect the admitting assessment to reveal? A. Slow pulse B. Anorexia C. Bulging eyes D. Weight gain 99. Which of the following foods, if selected by the mother with a child with celiac, would indicate her understanding of the dietary instructions? lOMoAR cPSD| 4330138 A. Whole-wheat toast B. Angel hair pasta C. Reuben on rye D. Rice cereal 100. The first action that the nurse should take if she finds the client has an O 2 saturation of 68% is: A. Elevate the head. B. Recheck the O 2 saturation in 30 minutes. C. Apply oxygen by mask. D. Assess the heart rate. 101. Which observation would the nurse expect to make after an amniotomy? A. Dark yellow amniotic fluid B. Clear amniotic fluid C. Greenish amniotic fluid D. Red amniotic fluid 102. The client taking Glyburide (Diabeta) should be cautioned to: A. Avoid eating sweets. B. Report changes in urinary pattern. C. Allow three hours for onset. D. Check the glucose daily. Quick Check Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 234 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 234 lOMoAR cPSD| 4330138 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 234 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 234 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 234Practice Exam 3 and Rationales 191 103. The obstetric client’s fetal heart rate is 80–90 during the contractions. The first action the nurse should take is: A. Reposition the monitor. B. Turn the client to her left side. C. Ask the client to ambulate. D. Prepare the client for delivery. 104. Arterial ulcers are best described as ulcers that: A. Are smooth in texture B. Have irregular borders C. Are cool to touch D. Are painful to touch 105. A vaginal exam reveals a footling breech presentation. The nurse should take which of the following actions at this time? A. Anticipate the need for a Caesarean section. B. Apply an internal fetal monitor. C. Place the client in Genu Pectoral position. D. Perform an ultrasound. 106. A vaginal exam reveals that the cervix is 4cm dilated, with intact membranes and a fetal heart tone rate of 160–170bpm. The nurse decides to apply an external fetal monitor. The rationale for this implementation is: A. The cervix is closed. lOMoAR cPSD| 4330138 B. The membranes are still intact. C. The fetal heart tones are within normal limits. D. The contractions are intense enough for insertion of an internal monitor. 107. The following are all nursing diagnoses appropriate for a gravida 1 para 0 in labor. Which one would be most appropriate for the primagravida as she completes the early phase of labor? A. Impaired gas exchange related to hyperventilation B. Alteration in placental perfusion related to maternal position C. Impaired physical mobility related to fetal-monitoring equipment D. Potential fluid volume deficit related to decreased fluid intake Quick Check Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 234 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 234 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 234 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 234 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 235192 Chapter 3 108. As the client reaches 6cm dilation, the nurse notes late decelerations on the fetal monitor. What is the most likely explanation of this pattern? lOMoAR cPSD| 4330138 A. The baby is sleeping. B. The umbilical cord is compressed. C. There is head compression. D. There is uteroplacental insufficiency. 109. The nurse notes variable decelerations on the fetal monitor strip. The most appropriate initial action would be to: A. Notify her doctor. B. Start an IV. C. Reposition the client. D. Readjust the monitor. 110. Which of the following is a characteristic of an ominous periodic change in the fetal heart rate? A. A fetal heart rate of 120–130bpm B. A baseline variability of 6–10bpm C. Accelerations in FHR with fetal movement D. A recurrent rate of 90–100bpm at the end of the contractions 111. The rationale for inserting a French catheter every hour for the client with epidural anesthesia is: A. The bladder fills more rapidly because of the medication used for the epidural. B. Her level of consciousness is such that she is in a trancelike state. C. The sensation of the bladder filling is diminished or lost. D. She is embarrassed to ask for the bedpan that frequently. 112. A client in the family planning clinic asks the nurse about the most likely time for her to conceive. The nurse explains that conception is most likely to occur when: A. Estrogen levels are low lOMoAR cPSD| 4330138 B. Lutenizing hormone is high C. The endometrial lining is thin D. The progesterone level is low Quick Check Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 235 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 235 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 235 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 235 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 235Practice Exam 3 and Rationales 193 113. A client tells the nurse that she plans to use the rhythm method of birth control. The nurse is aware that the success of the rhythm method depends on the: A. Age of the client B. Frequency of intercourse C. Regularity of the menses D. Range of the client’s temperature 114. A client with diabetes asks the nurse for advice regarding methods of birth control. Which method of birth control is most suitable for the client with diabetes? A. Intrauterine device B. Oral contraceptives C. Diaphragm D. Contraceptive sponge lOMoAR cPSD| 4330138 115. The doctor suspects that the client has an ectopic pregnancy. Which symptom is consistent with a diagnosis of a ruptured ectopic pregnancy? A. Painless vaginal bleeding B. Abdominal cramping C. Throbbing pain in the upper quadrant D. Sudden, stabbing pain in the lower quadrant 116. The nurse is teaching a pregnant client about nutritional needs during pregnancy. Which menu selection will best meet the nutritional needs of the pregnant client? A. Hamburger patty, green beans, French fries, and iced tea B. Roast beef sandwich, potato chips, baked beans, and cola C. Baked chicken, fruit cup, potato salad, coleslaw, yogurt, and iced tea D. Fish sandwich, gelatin with fruit, and coffee 117. The client with hyperemesis gravidarum is at risk for developing: A. Respiratory alkalosis without dehydration B. Metabolic acidosis with dehydration C. Respiratory acidosis without dehydration D. Metabolic alkalosis with dehydration Quick Check Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 235 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 235 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 235 lOMoAR cPSD| 4330138 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 236 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 236194 Chapter 3 118. A client tells the doctor that she is about 20 weeks pregnant. The most definitive sign of pregnancy is: A. Elevated human chorionic gonadatropin B. The presence of fetal heart tones C. Uterine enlargement D. Breast enlargement and tenderness 119. The nurse is caring for a neonate whose mother is diabetic. The nurse will expect the neonate to be: A. Hypoglycemic, small for gestational age B. Hyperglycemic, large for gestational age C. Hypoglycemic, large for gestational age D. Hyperglycemic, small for gestational age 120. Which of the following instructions should be included in the nurse’s teaching regarding oral contraceptives? A. Weight gain should be reported to the physician. B. An alternate method of birth control is needed when taking antibiotics. C. If the client misses one or more pills, two pills should be taken per day for one week. D. Changes in the menstrual flow should be reported to the physician. 121. The nurse is discussing breastfeeding with a postpartum client. Breastfeeding is contraindicated in the postpartum client with: A. Diabetes lOMoAR cPSD| 4330138 B. HIV C. Hypertension D. Thyroid disease 122. A client is admitted to the labor and delivery unit complaining of vaginal bleeding with very little discomfort. The nurse’s first action should be to: A. Assess the fetal heart tones. B. Check for cervical dilation. C. Check for firmness of the uterus. D. Obtain a detailed history. Quick Check Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 236 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 236 Quick Answer: 223 Detailed Answer: 236 Quick Answer: 224 Detailed Answer: 236 Quick Answer: 224 Detailed Answer: 236Practice Exam 3 and Rationales 195 123. A client telephones the emergency room stating that she thinks that she is in labor. The nurse should tell the client that labor has probably begun when: A. Her contractions are two minutes apart. B. She has back pain and a bloody discharge. C. She experiences abdominal pain and frequent urination. D. Her contractions are five minutes apart. lOMoAR cPSD| 4330138 124. The nurse is teaching a group of prenatal clients about the effects of cigarette smoke on fetal development. Which characteristic is associated with babies born to mothers who smoked during pregnancy? A. Low birth weight B. Large for gestational age C. Preterm birth, but appropriate size for gestation D. Growth retardation in weight and length 125. The physician has ordered an injection of RhoGam for the postpartum client whose blood type is A negative but whose baby is O positive. To provide postpartum prophylaxis, RhoGam should be administered: A. Within 72 hours of delivery B. Within one week of delivery C. Within two weeks of delivery D. Within one month of delivery 126. After the physician performs an amniotomy, the nurse’s first action should be to assess the: A. Degree of cervical dilation B. Fetal heart tones C. Client’s vital signs D. Client’s level of discomfort 127. A client is admitted to the labor and delivery unit. The nurse performs a vaginal exam and determines that the client’s cervix is 5cm dilated with 75% effacement. Based on the nurse’s assessment, the client is in which phase of labor? A. Active B. Latent C. Transition D. Early lOMoAR cPSD| 4330138 Quick Check Quick Answer: 224 Detailed Answer: 236 Quick Answer: 224 Detailed Answer: 237 Quick Answer: 224 Detailed Answer: 237 Quick Answer: 224 Detailed Answer: 237 Quick Answer: 224 Detailed Answer: 237196 Chapter 3 128. A newborn with narcotic abstinence syndrome is admitted to the nursery. Nursing care of the newborn should include: A. Teaching the mother to provide tactile stimulation B. Wrapping the newborn snugly in a blanket C. Placing the newborn in the infant seat D. Initiating an early infant-stimulation program 129. A client elects to have epidural anesthesia to relieve the discomfort of labor. Following the initiation of epidural anesthesia, the nurse should give priority to: A. Checking for cervical dilation B. Placing the client in a supine position C. Checking the client’s blood pressure D. Obtaining a fetal heart rate 130. The nurse is aware that the best way to prevent post-operative wound infection in the surgical client is to: A. Administer a prescribed antibiotic. B. Wash her hands for two minutes before care. lOMoAR cPSD| 4330138 C. Wear a mask when providing care. D. Ask the client to cover her mouth when she coughs. 131. The elderly client is admitted to the emergency room. Which symptom is the client with a fractured hip most likely to exhibit? A. Pain B. Disalignment C. Cool extremity D. Absence of pedal pulses 132. The nurse knows that a 60-year-old female client’s susceptibility to osteoporosis is most likely related to: A. Lack of exercise B. Hormonal disturbances C. Lack of calcium D. Genetic predisposition Quick Check Quick Answer: 224 Detailed Answer: 237 Quick Answer: 224 Detailed Answer: 237 Quick Answer: 224 Detailed Answer: 237 Quick Answer: 224 Detailed Answer: 237 Quick Answer: 224 Detailed Answer: 237Practice Exam 3 and Rationales 197 133. A two-year-old is admitted for repair of a fractured femur and is placed in Bryant’s traction. Which finding by the nurse indicates that the traction is working properly? lOMoAR cPSD| 4330138 A. The infant no longer complains of pain. B. The buttocks are 15° off the bed. C. The legs are suspended in the traction. D. The pins are secured within the pulley. 134. Which statement is true regarding balanced skeletal traction? Balanced skeletal traction: A. Uses a Steinman pin B. Requires that both legs be secured C. Utilizes Kirschner wires D. Is used primarily to heal the fractured hips 135. The client is admitted for an open reduction internal fixation of a fractured hip. Immediately following surgery, the nurse should give priority to assessing the: A. Serum collection (Davol) drain B. Client’s pain C. Nutritional status D. Immobilizer 136. Which statement made by the family member caring for the client with a percutaneous gastrostomy tube indicates understanding of the nurse’s teaching? A. “I must flush the tube with water after feedings and clamp the tube.” B. “I must check placement four times per day.” C. “I will report to the doctor any signs of indigestion.” D. “If my father is unable to swallow, I will discontinue the feeding and call the clinic.” 137. The nurse is assessing the client with a total knee replacement two hours post-operative. Which information requires notification lOMoAR cPSD| 4330138 of the doctor? A. Scant bleeding on the dressing B. Low-grade temperature C. Hemoglobin of 7gm D. The urinary output has been 120ml during the last hour Quick Check Quick Answer: 224 Detailed Answer: 238 Quick Answer: 224 Detailed Answer: 238 Quick Answer: 224 Detailed Answer: 238 Quick Answer: 224 Detailed Answer: 238 Quick Answer: 224 Detailed Answer: 238198 Chapter 3 138. The nurse is caring for the client with a five-year-old diagnosis of plumbism. Which information in the health history is most likely related to the development of plumbism? A. The client has traveled out of the country in the last six months. B. The client’s parents are skilled stained-glass artists. C. The client lives in a house built in 1990. D. The client has several brothers and sisters. 139. A client with a total hip replacement requires special equipment. Which equipment would assist the client with a total hip replacement with activities of daily living? A. High-seat commode lOMoAR cPSD| 4330138 B. Recliner C. TENS unit D. Abduction pillow 140. An elderly client with an abdominal surgery is admitted to the unit following surgery. In anticipation of complications of anesthesia and narcotic administration, the nurse should: A. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula. B. Have narcan (naloxane) available. C. Prepare to administer blood products. D. Prepare to do cardioresuscitation. 141. Which roommate would be most suitable for the six-year-old male with a fractured femur in Russell’s traction? A. 16-year-old female with scoliosis B. 12-year-old male with a fractured femur C. 10-year-old male with sarcoma D. 6-year-old male with osteomylitis 142. A client with osteoarthritis has a prescription for Celebrex (celecoxib). Which instruction should be included in the discharge teaching? A. Take the medication with milk. B. Report chest pain. C. Remain upright after taking for 30 minutes. D. Allow six weeks for optimal effects. Quick Check Quick Answer: 224 Detailed Answer: 238 Quick Answer: 224 Detailed Answer: 238 lOMoAR cPSD| 4330138 Quick Answer: 224 Detailed Answer: 238 Quick Answer: 224 Detailed Answer: 239 Quick Answer: 224 Detailed Answer: 239Practice Exam 3 and Rationales 199 143. A client with a fractured tibia has a plaster-of-Paris cast applied to immobilize the fracture. Which action by the nurse indicates understanding of a plaster-of-Paris cast? The nurse: A. Handles the cast with the fingertips B. Petals the cast C. Dries the cast with a hair dryer D. Allows 24 hours before bearing weight 144. The teenager with a fiberglass cast asks the nurse if it will be okay to allow his friends to autograph his cast. Which response would be best? A. “It will be alright for your friends to autograph the cast.” B. “Because the cast is made of plaster, autographing can weaken the cast.” C. “If they don’t use chalk to autograph, it is okay.” D. “Autographing or writing on the cast in any form will harm the cast.” 145. The nurse is assigned to care for the client with a Steinman pin. During pin care, she notes that the LPN uses sterile gloves and Qtips to clean the pin. Which action should the nurse take at this time? A. Assisting the LPN with opening sterile packages and lOMoAR cPSD| 4330138 peroxide B. Telling the LPN that clean gloves are allowed C. Telling the LPN that the registered nurse should perform pin care D. Asking the LPN to clean the weights and pulleys with peroxide 146. A child with scoliosis has a spica cast applied. Which action specific to the spica cast should be taken? A. Check the bowel sounds. B. Assess the blood pressure. C. Offer pain medication. D. Check for swelling. Quick Check Quick Answer: 224 Detailed Answer: 239 Quick Answer: 224 Detailed Answer: 239 Quick Answer: 224 Detailed Answer: 239 Quick Answer: 224 Detailed Answer: 239200 Chapter 3 147. The client with a cervical fracture is placed in traction. Which type of traction will be utilized at the time of discharge? A. Russell’s traction B. Buck’s traction C. Halo traction D. Crutchfield tong traction 148. A client with a total knee replacement has a CPM (continuous passive motion device) applied during the post-operative period. Which statement made by the nurse indicates understanding of lOMoAR cPSD| 4330138 the CPM machine? A. “Use of the CPM will permit the client to ambulate during the therapy.” B. “The CPM machine controls should be positioned distal to the site.” C. “If the client complains of pain during the therapy, I will turn off the machine and call the doctor.” D. “Use of the CPM machine will alleviate the need for physical therapy after the client is discharged.” 149. A client with a fractured hip is being taught correct use of the walker. The nurse is aware that the correct use of the walker is achieved if the: A. Palms rest lightly on the handles B. Elbows are flexed 0° C. Client walks to the front of the walker D. Client carries the walker 150. When assessing a laboring client, the nurse finds a prolapsed cord. The nurse should: A. Attempt to replace the cord. B. Place the client on her left side. C. Elevate the client’s hips. D. Cover the cord with a dry, sterile gauze. Quick Check Quick Answer: 224 Detailed Answer: 239 Quick Answer: 224 Detailed Answer: 239 Quick Answer: 224 Detailed Answer: 240 lOMoAR cPSD| 4330138 Quick Answer: 224 Detailed Answer: 240Practice Exam 3 and Rationales 201 151. The nurse is caring for a 30-year-old male admitted with a stab wound. While in the emergency room, a chest tube is inserted. Which of the following explains the primary rationale for insertion of chest tubes? A. The tube will allow for equalization of the lung expansion. B. Chest tubes serve as a method of draining blood and serous fluid and assist in reinflating the lungs. C. Chest tubes relieve pain associated with a collapsed lung. D. Chest tubes assist with cardiac function by stabilizing lung expansion. 152. A client who delivered this morning tells the nurse that she plans to breastfeed her baby. The nurse is aware that successful breastfeeding is most dependent on the: A. Mother’s educational level B. Infant’s birth weight C. Size of the mother’s breast D. Mother’s desire to breastfeed 153. The nurse is monitoring the progress of a client in labor. Which finding should be reported to the physician immediately? A. The presence of scant bloody discharge B. Frequent urination C. The presence of green-tinged amniotic fluid D. Moderate uterine contractions 154. The nurse is measuring the duration of the client’s contractions. Which statement is true regarding the measurement of the duration of contractions? A. Duration is measured by timing from the beginning of lOMoAR cPSD| 4330138 one contraction to the beginning of the next contraction. B. Duration is measured by timing from the end of one contraction to the beginning of the next contraction. C. Duration is measured by timing from the beginning of one contraction to the end of the same contraction. D. Duration is measured by timing from the peak of one contraction to the end of the same contraction. Quick Check Quick Answer: 224 Detailed Answer: 240 Quick Answer: 224 Detailed Answer: 240 Quick Answer: 224 Detailed Answer: 240 Quick Answer: 224 Detailed Answer: 240202 Chapter 3 155. The physician has ordered an intravenous infusion of Pitocin for the induction of labor. When caring for the obstetric client receiving intravenous Pitocin, the nurse should monitor for: A. Maternal hypoglycemia B. Fetal bradycardia C. Maternal hyperreflexia D. Fetal movement 156. A client with diabetes visits the prenatal clinic at 28 weeks gestation. Which statement is true regarding insulin needs during pregnancy? A. Insulin requirements moderate as the pregnancy progresses. B. A decreased need for insulin occurs during the second trimester. C. Elevations in human chorionic gonadotrophin decrease lOMoAR cPSD| 4330138 the need for insulin. D. Fetal development depends on adequate insulin regulation. 157. A client in the prenatal clinic is assessed to have a blood pressure of 180/96. The nurse should give priority to: A. Providing a calm environment B. Obtaining a diet history C. Administering an analgesic D. Assessing fetal heart tones 158. A primigravida, age 42, is six weeks pregnant. Based on the client’s age, her infant is at risk for: A. Down syndrome B. Respiratory distress syndrome C. Turner’s syndrome D. Pathological jaundice 159. A client with a missed abortion at 29 weeks gestation is admitted to the hospital. The client will most likely be treated with: A. Magnesium sulfate B. Calcium gluconate C. Dinoprostone (Prostin E.) D. Bromocrystine (Parlodel) Quick Check Quick Answer: 224 Detailed Answer: 240 Quick Answer: 224 Detailed Answer: 240 Quick Answer: 224 Detailed Answer: 240 Quick Answer: 224 lOMoAR cPSD| 4330138 Detailed Answer: 241 Quick Answer: 224 Detailed Answer: 241Practice Exam 3 and Rationales 203 160. A client with preeclampsia has been receiving an infusion containing magnesium sulfate for a blood pressure that is 160/80; deep tendon reflexes are 1 plus, and the urinary output for the past hour is 100mL. The nurse should: A. Continue the infusion of magnesium sulfate while monitoring the client’s blood pressure. B. Stop the infusion of magnesium sulfate and contact the physician. C. Slow the infusion rate and turn the client on her left side. D. Administer calcium gluconate IV push and continue to monitor the blood pressure. 161. Which statement made by the nurse describes the inheritance pattern of autosomal recessive disorders? A. An affected newborn has unaffected parents. B. An affected newborn has one affected parent. C. Affected parents have a one in four chance of passing on the defective gene. D. Affected parents have unaffected children who are carriers. 162. A pregnant client, age 32, asks the nurse why her doctor has recommended a serum alpha fetoprotein. The nurse should explain that the doctor has recommended the test: A. Because it is a state law B. To detect cardiovascular defects C. Because of her age D. To detect neurological defects lOMoAR cPSD| 4330138 163. A client with hypothyroidism asks the nurse if she will still need to take thyroid medication during the pregnancy. The nurse’s response is based on the knowledge that: A. There is no need to take thyroid medication because the fetus’s thyroid produces a thyroid-stimulating hormone. B. Regulation of thyroid medication is more difficult because the thyroid gland increases in size during pregnancy. C. It is more difficult to maintain thyroid regulation during pregnancy due to a slowing of metabolism. D. Fetal growth is arrested if thyroid medication is continued during pregnancy. Quick Check Quick Answer: 224 Detailed Answer: 241 Quick Answer: 224 Detailed Answer: 241 Quick Answer: 224 Detailed Answer: 241 Quick Answer: 224 Detailed Answer: 241204 Chapter 3 164. The nurse is responsible for performing a neonatal assessment on a full-term infant. At one minute, the nurse could expect to find: A. An apical pulse of 100 B. An absence of tonus C. Cyanosis of the feet and hands D. Jaundice of the skin and sclera 165. A client with sickle cell anemia is admitted to the labor and delivery unit during the first phase of labor. The nurse should anticipate the client’s need for: A. Supplemental oxygen lOMoAR cPSD| 4330138 B. Fluid restriction C. Blood transfusion D. Delivery by Caesarean section 166. A client with diabetes has an order for ultrasonography. Preparation for an ultrasound includes: A. Increasing fluid intake B. Limiting ambulation C. Administering an enema D. Withholding food for eight hours 167. An infant who weighs 8 pounds at birth would be expected to weigh how many pounds at one year? A. 14 pounds B. 16 pounds C. 18 pounds D. 24 pounds 168. A pregnant client with a history of alcohol addiction is scheduled for a nonstress test. The nonstress test: A. Determines the lung maturity of the fetus B. Measures the activity of the fetus C. Shows the effect of contractions on the fetal heart rate D. Measures the neurological well-being of the fetus Quick Check Quick Answer: 224 Detailed Answer: 241 Quick Answer: 224 Detailed Answer: 241 Quick Answer: 224 Detailed Answer: 241 lOMoAR cPSD| 4330138 Quick Answer: 224 Detailed Answer: 241 Quick Answer: 224 Detailed Answer: 242Practice Exam 3 and Rationales 205 169. A full-term male has hypospadias. Which statement describes hypospadias? A. The urethral opening is absent B. The urethra opens on the top side of the penis C. The urethral opening is enlarged D. The urethra opens on the under side of the penis 170. A gravida III para II is admitted to the labor unit. Vaginal exam reveals that the client’s cervix is 8cm dilated, with complete effacement. The priority nursing diagnosis at this time is: A. Alteration in coping related to pain B. Potential for injury related to precipitate delivery C. Alteration in elimination related to anesthesia D. Potential for fluid volume deficit related to NPO status 171. The client with varicella will most likely have an order for which category of medication? A. Antibiotics B. Antipyretics C. Antivirals D. Anticoagulants 172. A client is admitted complaining of chest pain. Which of the following drug orders should the nurse question? A. Nitroglycerin B. Ampicillin C. Propranolol lOMoAR cPSD| 4330138 D. Verapamil 173. Which of the following instructions should be included in the teaching for the client with rheumatoid arthritis? A. Avoid exercise because it fatigues the joints. B. Take prescribed anti-inflammatory medications with meals. C. Alternate hot and cold packs to affected joints. D. Avoid weight-bearing activity. Quick Check Quick Answer: 224 Detailed Answer: 242 Quick Answer: 224 Detailed Answer: 242 Quick Answer: 224 Detailed Answer: 242 Quick Answer: 224 Detailed Answer: 242 Quick Answer: 224 Detailed Answer: 242206 Chapter 3 174. A client with acute pancreatitis is experiencing severe abdominal pain. Which of the following orders should be questioned by the nurse? A. Meperidine 100mg IM m 4 hours PRN pain B. Mylanta 30 ccs m 4 hours via NG C. Cimetadine 300mg PO m.i.d. D. Morphine 8mg IM m 4 hours PRN pain 175. The client is admitted to the chemical dependence unit with an lOMoAR cPSD| 4330138 order for continuous observation. The nurse is aware that the doctor has ordered continuous observation because: A. Hallucinogenic drugs create both stimulant and depressant effects. B. Hallucinogenic drugs induce a state of altered perception. C. Hallucinogenic drugs produce severe respiratory depression. D. Hallucinogenic drugs induce rapid physical dependence. 176. A client with a history of abusing barbiturates abruptly stops taking the medication. The nurse should give priority to assessing the client for: A. Depression and suicidal ideation B. Tachycardia and diarrhea C. Muscle cramp