NURS 5220 TEST 2 QUESTIONS WITH ALL CORRECT ANSWERS 2025

NURS 5220 TEST 2 QUESTIONS WITH ALL CORRECT ANSWERS 2025 The risk of ovarian cancer is increased by A. the use of oral contraceptives. B. cigarette smoking. C. age between 35 and 50 years. D. early age at first intercourse. - Correct Answer A. Early menarche and menopause after 50 years of age increase the risk The form of gynecologic cancer that is increased in obese women is a. vaginal. b. cervical. c. ovarian. d. endometrial. - Correct Answer D. The mother of an 8-year-old child reports that she has recently noticed a discharge stain on her daughter's underwear. Both the mother and daughter appear nervous and concerned. You would need to ask questions to assess the child's A. drug ingestion. B. fluid intake. C. risk for sexual abuse. D. hormone responsiveness. - Correct Answer C. Female patient should ideally be in which position for the pelvic examination - Correct Answer Lithotomy When you plan to obtain cytologic studies, speculum introduction may be facilitated by A. lubrication with gel. B. lubrication with warm water. C. use of a plastic speculum. D. opening the blades completely. - Correct Answer B. lubrication with warm water Which one of the following is a proper technique for the use of a speculum during a vaginal examination? A. Allow the labia to spread, and insert the speculum slightly open. B. Insert one finger, and insert the opened speculum. C. Press the introitus downward, and insert the closed speculum obliquely. D. Spread the labia, and insert the closed speculum horizontally. - Correct Answer C. When collecting specimens, which sample should be obtained first? A. Chlamydial swab B. Gonococcal culture C. Pap smear D. Wet mount - Correct Answer C. Mrs. Reilly brings her 6-year-old daughter in with complaints of a foul vaginal discharge noted in her underpants. The most common cause of a foul vaginal discharge in children is a(n) A. accident. B. foreign body. C. infection. D.ruptured hymen. - Correct Answer B foreign body A mother brings her 8-year-old daughter to the clinic because the child says it hurts to urinate after she fell while riding her bicycle. On inspection, you find posterior vulvar and gross perineum bruising. These findings are consistent with A. chronic masturbation. B. congenital defects. C. acute urinary tract infection. D. sexual abuse. - Correct Answer D. injuries resulting from sexual molestation are generally more posterior and may involve the perineum grossly What accommodations should be used for the position of a hearing-impaired woman for a pelvic examination? A. The patient should assume the M or V position. B. Her legs should be farther apart. C. The head of the table should be elevated. D. The lithotomy position with obstetric stirrups should be used. - Correct Answer C. Asking the woman to close the introitus during a pelvic examination is a test for A. endometriosis. B. rectocele. C. cervical polyps. D. sphincter tone. - Correct Answer D. A young, sexually active woman comes to the urgent care clinic complaining of suprapubic abdominal pain. She is afebrile with rebound tenderness to the right side. There is no dysuria and no vaginal discharge or odor. A pelvic examination is done. She has pain with cervical motion, and you palpate a painful mass over the left adnexal area. Your prioritized action is to A. swab for gonococcal infection and then dip her urine. B. obtain a surgical consult immediately. C. remove the foreign body. D. dip her urine and then swab for Chlamydia. - Correct Answer B. Inspection of the scrotum should reveal A. lightly pigmented skin. B. two testes per sac. C. smooth scrotal sacs. D. the left scrotal sac lower than the right. - Correct Answer D Expected genitalia changes that occur as men age include that A. the ejaculatory volume decreases with age. B. erections develop more quickly. C. the viability of sperm increases. D. the scrotum becomes more pendulous. - Correct Answer D. the scrotum becomes more pendulous You are inspecting the genitalia of an uncircumcised adult male. The foreskin is tight and cannot be easily retracted. You should A. chart the finding as paraphimosis. B. inquire about previous penile infections. C. retract the foreskin firmly. D. transilluminate the glans. - Correct Answer B. phimosis usually congenital may be related to recurrent infections or poorly controlled diabetes Which type of hernia lies within the inguinal canal? a. Umbilical b. Direct c. Indirect d. Femoral - Correct Answer C. indirect hernias Which condition is of minor consequence in an adult male? A. Adhesions of the foreskin B. Continuous penile erection C. Lumps in the scrotal skin D. Venous dilation in the spermatic cord - Correct Answer C. Lumps in the scrotal skin Mr. L has an unusually thick scrotum, with edema and pitting. He has a history of cardiac problems. The appearance of his scrotum is most likely a(n) A. congenital defect that has worsened. B. indication of general fluid retention. C. normal consequence of aging. D. complication of the development of mumps. - Correct Answer B. A characteristic related to syphilis or diabetic neuropathy is testicular A. dropping, with asymmetry. B. enlargement. C. insensitivity to painful stimulation. D. recession into the abdomen. - Correct Answer C. A premature infant's scrotum will appear - Correct Answer smooth An enlarged painless testicle in an adolescent or adult male may indicate - Correct Answer a tumor You palpate a soft, slightly tender mass in the right scrotum of an adult male. You attempt to reduce the size of the mass, and there is no change in the mass size. Your next assessment maneuver is to A. use two fingers to attempt to reduce the mass. B. palpate the left scrotum simultaneously. C. lift the right testicle and then compare pain level. D. transilluminate the mass. - Correct Answer D. The most common type of hernia occurring in young males is A. hiatal. B. incarcerated femoral. C. indirect inguinal. D. umbilical. - Correct Answer C. indirect inguinal Difficulty replacing the retracted foreskin of the penis to its normal position is called A. paraphimosis. B. Peyronie disease. C. phimosis. D. priapism. - Correct Answer A. paraphiomosis Which genital virus infection is known to have a latent phase followed by the production of viral DNA capsids and particles? A. Condyloma acuminatum B. Molluscum contagiosum C. Herpetic lesions D. Lymphogranuloma venereum - Correct Answer A. condyloma acuminatum Pearly gray, smooth, dome-shaped, often umbilicated lesions of the glans penis are probably A. herpetic lesions. B. condylomata. C. molluscum contagiosum. D. chancres. - Correct Answer C. Mollscum contagiosum A 12-year-old boy relates that his left scrotum has a soft swollen mass. The scrotum is not painful on palpation. The left inguinal canal is without masses. The mass transilluminates with a penlight. This collection of symptoms is consistent with A. orchitis. B. a hydrocele. C. a rectocele. D. a scrotal hernia. - Correct Answer B. hydrocele Which condition is a complication of mumps in the adolescent or adult? a. Cystitis b. Epididymitis c. Orchitis d. Paraphimosis - Correct Answer C. orchitis is uncommon unless seen as a complication of mumps in the adolescent or adult Parents of a 6-year-old boy should be asked if he has A. erections. B. nocturnal emissions. C. rapid detumescence. D. scrotal swelling. - Correct Answer D. scrotal swelling can be indicative of a hernia The male with Peyronie disease will usually complain of A. painful, inflamed testicles. B. deviation of the penis during erection. C. lack of sexual interest. D. painful lesions of the penis. - Correct Answer B. deviation of the penis during erection Baby Sue is born with an imperforate anus. However, her outward anal appearance is normal. Which sign would indicate to the healthcare provider that she has a closed anal passageway? A. Development of a scaphoid abdomen B. Vomiting after her first feeding C. Bleeding from the rectum D. Failure to pass meconium stool - Correct Answer D. Failure to pass meconium stool In males, which surface of the prostate gland is accessible by digital examination? A. Median lobe B. Posterior C. Superior D. Anterior - Correct Answer B. posterior The prostatic sulcus A. divides the right and left lateral lobes. B. is the site of the seminal vesicle emergence. C. refers to the anterior aspect of the prostate. D. secretes clear viscous mucus. - Correct Answer A. divides the right and left lateral lobes The rectal past medical history of all patients should include inquiry about A. bowel habits. B. dietary habits. C. hemorrhoid surgery. D. laxative use. - Correct Answer C. hemorrhoid surgery The effects of aging on the gastrointestinal system leads to more frequent experiences of A. constipation. B. prolonged satiety. C. diarrhea. D. prostate glandular atrophy. - Correct Answer A. constipation Factors associated with increased risk of prostate cancer include A. African descent. B. cigarette smoking. C. a low-fat diet. D. alcoholism. - Correct Answer A. African descent Which is a risk factor for colorectal cancer? A. High-fiber diet B. Diet low in animal fats and proteins C. Irish descent D. Inherited BRAC2 mutation - Correct Answer D. Inherited BRAC2 mutation Nodules found in the peritoneum through the anterior rectal wall A. are found with bi-digital palpation. B. are called shelf lesions. C. are chronic fibrosis. D. are found by having the patient bear down. - Correct Answer B. are called shelf lesions Perianal abscesses, fissures, or pilonidal cysts will cause the patient to experience A. bulging and wrinkling. B. constipation and pallor. C. diarrhea and redness. D. tenderness and inflammation. - Correct Answer D. tenderness and inflammation Palpation of the anal ring is done by A. Bi-digital palpation with the thumbs. B. inserting the smallest finger into the anus. C. pressing a gauze pad over the anus. D. rotation of the forefinger inside the anus. - Correct Answer D. Rotation of the forefinger inside the anus The posterior surface of the prostate can be located by palpation of the A. anal canal and perineum. B. anterior wall of the rectum. C. lateral wall of the anus. D. lower abdomen and perineum. - Correct Answer B. anterior wall of the rectum Your patient's chief complaint is repeated, pencil-like stools. Further examination should include A. a stool culture. B. parasite testing. C. a digital rectal examination (DRE). D. a prostate examination. - Correct Answer C. persistent, pencil-shaped stools are indicative of stenosis from scarring or pressure from a mass Very light tan or gray stools may indicate A. upper gastrointestinal bleeding. B. obstructive jaundice. C. lower gastrointestinal bleeding. D. polyposis. - Correct Answer B. Very light tan or gray stools may suggest obstructive jaundice Tarry black stools should increase suspicion for A. internal hemorrhoids. B. rectal fistula. C. upper intestinal tract bleeding. D. prostatic cancer. - Correct Answer C. upper intestinal tract bleeding Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) screening is controversial because A. there are many false-negative results. B. PSA is produced by many other tissues. C. it is less sensitive than digital rectal examination. D. no data have proved that it decreases mortality. - Correct Answer D. Which finding in an infant may indicate lower spinal deformities? A. Perirectal redness B. Shrunken buttocks C. Rectal prolapse D. Dimpling in the pilonidal area - Correct Answer D. A lower spinal cord lesion may be indicated by which finding? A. Lack of an anal wink B. Rectal prolapse C. Anal fistula D. Small flaps of anal skin - Correct Answer A. lack of an anal wink Pinworms and Candida may both cause A. constipation. B. hemorrhoids. C. perirectal irritation. D. perirectal protrusion. - Correct Answer C. perirectal irritation Thrombosed hemorrhoids are A. flabby skin sacs. B. red, inflamed, and painful. C. fluctuant soft papules. D. blue, shiny, painful masses. - Correct Answer D. Palpation of a normal prostate in an older adult is likely to feel a. cool. b. grainy. c. polypoid. d. rubbery. - Correct Answer D. rubbery Mr. Dunn is a 62-year-old man who has presented for a routine annual examination. On examination of the prostate you note a hard, irregular, painless nodule and obliteration of the median sulcus. These are signs of A. benign prostatic hypertrophy. B. cancer of the prostate. C. long-standing prostatitis. D. swelling as a result of aging. - Correct Answer D. swelling as a result of aging The mother brings her 4-year-old to the clinic because the child complains of perianal itching. As part of your examination you complete a cellulose tape test. The cellulose tape test is used for the detection of a. enterobiasis. b. carcinoma. c. amebiasis. d. steatorrhea. - Correct Answer A. enterobiasis (pinworm infestation) The type of joint that has the widest range of motion in all planes is the a. ball-and-socket. b. condyloid. c. gliding. d. saddle. - Correct Answer A. ball-and-socket Long bones in children have growth plates known as a. epiphyses. b. epicondyles. c. synovium. d. fossae. - Correct Answer A. epiphyses The elasticity of pelvic ligaments and softening of cartilage in a pregnant woman are the result of A. decreased mineral deposition. B. increased hormone secretion. C. uterine enlargement. D. gait changes. - Correct Answer B. increased hormone secretion Skeletal changes in older adults are the result of A. increased bone deposition. B. increased bone resorption. C. decreased bone deposition. D. decreased bone resorption. - Correct Answer B. increased bone resorption The family history for a patient with joint pain should include information about siblings with A. trauma to the skeletal system. B. chronic atopic dermatitis. C. genetic disorders. D. obesity. - Correct Answer C. genetic disorders Risk factors for sports-related injuries include A. competing in colder climates. B. previous fracture. C. history of recent weight loss. D. failure to warm up before activity. - Correct Answer D. failure to warm up before activity Light skin and thin body habitus are risk factors for A. rheumatoid arthritis. B. osteoarthritis. C. congenital bony defects. D. osteoporosis. - Correct Answer D. osteoporosis Inquiry about nocturnal muscle spasms would be most significant when taking the musculoskeletal history of A. adolescents. B. infants. C. older adults. D. middle-age adults. - Correct Answer C. older adults A goniometer is used to assess A. bone maturity. B. joint proportions. C. range of motion. D. muscle strength. - Correct Answer C. ROM When palpating joints, crepitus may occur when A. irregular bony surfaces rub together. B. supporting muscles are excessively spastic. C. joints are excessively lax. D. there is excess fluid within the synovial membrane. - Correct Answer A. irregular bony surfaces rub together The temporomandibular joint is palpated under the mandible, anterior to the A. sternocleidomastoid muscle. B. above the mandible at midline. C. anterior to the tragus. D. at the mastoid process. - Correct Answer C. anterior to the tragus The temporalis and masseter muscles are evaluated by A. having the patient shrug his or her shoulders. B. having the patient clench his or her teeth. C. asking the patient to fully extend his or her neck. D. passively opening the patient's jaw. - Correct Answer B. The strength of the trapezius muscle is evaluated by having the patient A. clench his or her teeth during muscle palpation. B. push his or her head against the examiner's hand. C. straighten his or her leg with examiner opposition. D. uncross his or her legs with examiner resistance. - Correct Answer B. Expected normal findings during the inspection of spinal alignment include A. asymmetric skin folds at the neck. B. slight right-sided scapular elevation. C. concave lumbar curve. D. the head positioned superiorly to the gluteal cleft. - Correct Answer D. the head positioned superiorly to the gluteal cleft A common finding in markedly obese patients and pregnant women is a. kyphosis. b. lordosis. c. paraphimosis. d. scoliosis. - Correct Answer B. lordosis When a patient abducts an arm and the ipsilateral scapula becomes more prominent (winged), this usually means that A. there has been an injury to the nerve of the anterior serratus muscle. B. one of the clavicles has been fractured. C. there is a unilateral trapezius muscle separation. D. one shoulder is dislocated. - Correct Answer A. Ulnar deviation and swan neck deformities are characteristics of A. rheumatoid arthritis. B. osteoarthritis. C. osteoporosis. D. congenital defects. - Correct Answer A. RA A finding that is indicative of osteoarthritis is (are) A. swan neck deformities. B. Bouchard nodes. C. ganglions. D. Heberden nodes. - Correct Answer D. Carpal tunnel syndrome would result in A. a negative Tinel sign. B. a negative Phalen test. C. reduced abduction of the thumb. D. palm tingling. - Correct Answer C. The autonomic nervous system coordinates which of the following? High-level cognitive function Balance and affect Internal organs of the body Balance and equilibrium - Correct Answer internal organs of the body The major function of the sympathetic nervous system is to orchestrate the stress response. coordinate fine motor movement. determine proprioception. perceive stereognosis. - Correct Answer orchestrate the stress response The parasympathetic nervous system maintains the day-to-day function of digestion. response to stress. lymphatic supply to the brain. lymphatic drainage of the brain. - Correct Answer digestion Cerebrospinal fluid serves as a nerve impulse transmitter. red blood cell conveyer. shock absorber. mediator of voluntary skeletal movement. - Correct Answer shock absorber Diabetic peripheral neuropathy will likely produce hyperactive ankle reflexes. diminished pain sensation. exaggerated vibratory sense. hypersensitive temperature perception. - Correct Answer diminished pain sensation The thalamus is the major integration center for the perception of a. speech. b. olfaction. c. pain. d. thoughts. - Correct Answer C. pain The awareness of body position is known as A. proprioception. B. graphesthesia. C. stereognosis. D. two-point discrimination. - Correct Answer A. proprioception Which area of the brain maintains temperature control? a. Epithalamus b. Thalamus c. Abducens d. Hypothalamus - Correct Answer D. hypothalamus If a patient cannot shrug his or her shoulders against resistance, which cranial nerve (CN) requires further evaluation? CN I, olfactory CN V, trigeminal CN IX, glossopharyngeal CN XI, spinal accessory - Correct Answer CN XI (spinal accessory) Motor maturation proceeds in an orderly progression from peripheral to central. head to toe. lateral to medial. pedal to cephalic. - Correct Answer head to toe Normal changes of the aging brain include increased velocity of nerve conduction. diminished perception of touch. increased total number of neurons. diminished intelligence quotient. - Correct Answer diminished perception of touch The area of body surface innervated by a particular spinal nerve is called a dermatome. nerve pathway. spinal accessory area. cutaneous zone. - Correct Answer dermatome A neurologic past medical history should include data about allergies. circulatory problems. educational level. immunizations. - Correct Answer Circulatory problems When assessing superficial pain, touch, vibration, and position perceptions, you are testing A. cerebellar function. B. emotional status. C. sensory function. D. tendon reflexes. - Correct Answer C. sensory function You are initially evaluating the equilibrium of Ms. Q. You ask her to stand, with her feet together and arms at her sides. She loses her balance. Ms. Q has a positive Kernig sign. Homan sign. McMurray test. Romberg sign. - Correct Answer Romberg sign The finger to nose test allows assessment of coordination and fine motor function. point location. sensory function. stereognosis. - Correct Answer coordination and fine motor function As Mr. B enters the room, you observe that his gait is wide-based and he staggers from side to side while swaying his trunk. You would document Mr. B's pattern as dystonic ataxia. cerebellar ataxia. steppage gait. tabetic stamping. - Correct Answer cerebellar ataxia Deep pressure tests are used mostly for patients who are experiencing absent superficial pain sensation. gait and stepping disturbances. lordosis, osteoporosis, or arthritis. tonic neck or torso spasms. - Correct Answer absent superficial pain sensation Vibratory sensory testing should be routinely done for the patient with Parkinson disease. diabetes. cerebral palsy. Guillain-Barré syndrome. - Correct Answer diabetes When you ask a patient to close his or her eyes and identify an object placed in the hand, you are evaluating stereognosis. graphesthesia. vibratory sensation. extinction phenomenon. - Correct Answer graphesthesia The ability to recognize a number traced on the skin is called stereognosis. graphesthesia. an extinction phenomenon. two-point discrimination. - Correct Answer graphesthesia Which condition is consistent with Brown-Séquard syndrome? Central sensory loss that is generalized Motor paralysis on the lesion side of the body Multiple peripheral neuropathy of the joints Spinal root paralysis below the umbilicus - Correct Answer Motor paralysis on the lesion side of the body Visible or palpable extension of the elbow is caused by reflex contraction of which muscle? a. Achilles b. Biceps c. Patellar d. Triceps - Correct Answer D. triceps It is especially important to test for ankle clonus if deep tendon reflexes are hyperactive. deep tendon reflexes are hypoactive. the Romberg sign is positive. the patient has peripheral neuropathy. - Correct Answer deep tendon reflexes are hyperactive On a scale of 1+ to 4+, which deep tendon reflex score is appropriate for a finding of clonus in a patient? a. 1+ b. 2+ c. 3+ d. 4+ - Correct Answer D. 4+ You are most concerned for the infant who has a weak palmar grasp at 3 months. strong stepping reflex at 2 months. weak plantar reflex at 9 months. strong tonic neck at 6 months. - Correct Answer strong tonic neck at 6 months At what age should the infant begin to transfer objects from hand to hand? 2 months 4 months 7 months 10 months - Correct Answer 7 months An acute polyneuropathy that commonly follows a nonspecific infection occurring 10 to 14 days earlier and that primarily affects the motor and autonomic peripheral nerves in an ascending pattern is cerebral palsy. HIV encephalopathy. Guillain-Barré syndrome. Rett syndrome. - Correct Answer Guillain-Barré syndrome Which is a concern, rather than an expected finding, in older adults? Reduced ability to differentiate colors Bilateral pillrolling of the fingers Absent plantar reflex Reduction in upward gaze - Correct Answer Bilateral pillrolling of the fingers Which condition is potentially life-threatening if not treated expeditiously with antibiotics? HIV encephalopathy Dementia Parkinson disease Bacterial meningitis - Correct Answer bacterial meningitis Ipsilateral Horner syndrome indicates a cerebrovascular accident (CVA) occurring in the anterior portion of the pons. internal or middle cerebral artery. posterior inferior cerebellar artery. vertebral or basilar arteries. - Correct Answer posterior inferior cerebellar artery The immune system attacks the synaptic junction between the nerve and muscle fibers, blocking acetylcholine receptor sites in myasthenia gravis. encephalitis. multiple sclerosis. cerebral palsy - Correct Answer myasthenia gravis When performing a history and physical assessment, the examiner should A. change the sequence of observation with each interview. B. develop a sequence of standard observations. C. develop a preliminary diagnosis at the onset. D. direct patient responses to fit the history sequence. - Correct Answer B. develop a sequence of standard observations The examiner should develop a demeanor that is exemplified by which one of the following behaviors? Exhibits visible distaste about the condition. Gives immediate reassurances to the patient. Gives patient unsolicited advice. Validates the patient's justified concerns. - Correct Answer Validates the patient's justified concerns At your first meeting with a patient, it is usually best to say ―Let's get to the point. ―I hope you will learn to trust me. ―Let me tell you what I can do for you. ―Tell me about yourself. - Correct Answer Tell me about yourself Which patient characteristic is most likely to limit patient reliability during history taking? The patient's measured IQ is above average. The patient is alert and oriented to time and place. The patient is depressed. The patient speaks the same language as examiner. - Correct Answer The patient is depressed The reliability of health-related findings and observations is the responsibility of the patient. professional and medical assistants. attending clinician. professional and the patient. - Correct Answer professional and the patient Which is most likely to enhance examiner reliability? The examiner who seeks input from others. The examiner is uncomfortable with his or her own skills. The examiner believes that he or she must always be correct. The examiner prejudges the patient and family. - Correct Answer The examiner who seeks input from others The sequence of the physical examination should be individualized to minimize the number of times that the patient must change positions. maximize the convenience of the examiner. improve patient flow. minimize the time that the patient is in the room. - Correct Answer minimize the number of times that the patient must change positions Which are examined with the patient in a reclining 45-degree position? A. Bilateral hips and popliteal angles B. Facial bones and cranial nerves V and VII C. Jugular venous pulsation and pressure D. Oropharynx and thyroid gland placement - Correct Answer C. JV pulsation and pressure