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Evolve HESI Med-Surg 2024 Exam Review with Verified Solutions| 100% Correct| Already Graded A.

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The nurse is assessing a client with bacterial meningitis. Which assessment finding indicates the client may have developed septic emboli? A) Cyanosis of the fingertips. B) Bradycardia and bradypnea. C) Presence of S3 and S4 heart sounds. D) 3+ pitting edema of the lower extremities. A) Cyanosis of the fingertips. Septic emboli secondary to meningitis commonly lodge in the small arterioles of the extremities, causing a decrease in circulation to the hands (A) which may lead to gangrene. (B, C, and D) are abnormal findings, but do not indicate the development of septic emboli. In assessing a client diagnosed with primary hyperaldosteronism, the nurse expects the laboratory test results to indicate a decreased serum level of which substance? A) Sodium. B) Antidiuretic hormone. C) Potassium. D) Glucose. C) Potassium. Clients with primary aldosteronism exhibit a profound decline in the serum levels of potassium (C) (hypokalemia)--hypertension is the most prominent and universal sign. (A) is normal or elevated, depending on the amount of water reabsorbed with the sodium. (B) is decreased with diabetes insipidus. (D) is not affected by primary aldosteronism. A client with diabetes mellitus is experiencing polyphagia. Which outcome statement is the priority for this client? A) Fluid and electrolyte balance. B) Prevention of water toxicity. C) Reduced glucose in the urine. D) Adequate cellular nourishment. D) Adequate cellular nourishment. Diabetes mellitus Type 1 is characterized by hyperglycemia that precipitates glucosuria and polyuria (frequent urination), polydipsia (excessive thirst), and polyphagia (excessive hunger). Polyphagia is a consequence of cellular malnourishment when insulin deficiency prevents utilization of glucose for energy, so the outcome statement should include stabilization of adequate cellular nutrition (D). (A, B, and C) relate to subsequent osmolar fluid shifts related to glucosuria, polyuria, and polydipsia. Based on the analysis of the client's atrial fibrillation, the nurse should prepare the client for which treatment protocol? A) Diuretic therapy. B) Pacemaker implantation. C) Anticoagulation therapy. D) Cardiac catheterization. C) Anticoagulation therapy. The client is experiencing atrial fibrillation, and the nurse should prepare the client for anticoagulation therapy (C) which should be prescribed before rhythm control therapies to prevent cardioembolic events which result from blood pooling in the fibrillating atria. (A, B, and D) are not indicated. Which information about mammograms is most important to provide a post-menopausal female client? A) Breast self-examinations are not needed if annual mammograms are obtained. B) Radiation exposure is minimized by shielding the abdomen with a lead-lined apron. C) Yearly mammograms should be done regardless of previous normal x-rays. D) Women at high risk should have annual routine and ultrasound mammograms. C) Yearly mammograms should be done regardless of previous normal x-rays. The current breast screening recommendation is a yearly mammogram after age 40 (C). Breast self-exam (A) continues to be a priority recommendation for all women because a small lump (or tumor) is often first felt by a woman before a mammogram is obtained. The radiation exposure from a mammogram is low, so (B) is not normally provided. The frequency of using routine and ultrasound mammograms (D) in women with high-risk variables, such as a history of breast cancer, the presence of BRC1 and BRC2 genes, or 2 first-degree relatives with breast cancer, should be recommended and followed closely by the healthcare provider. In assessing cancer risk, the nurse identifies which woman as being at greatest risk of developing breast cancer? A) A 35-year-old multipara who never breastfed. B) A 50-year-old whose mother had unilateral breast cancer. C) A 55-year-old whose mother-in-law had bilateral breast cancer. D) A 20-year-old whose menarche occurred at age 9. B) A 50-year-old whose mother had unilateral breast cancer. The most predictive risk factors for development of breast cancer are over 40 years of age and a positive family history (occurrence in the immediate family, i.e., mother or sister). Other risk factors include nulliparity, no history of breastfeeding, early menarche and late menopause. Although all of the women described have one of the risk factors for developing breast cancer, (B) has the greater risk over (A, C, and D). A client with multiple sclerosis has experienced an exacerbation of symptoms, including paresthesias, diplopia, and nystagmus. Which instruction should the nurse provide? A) Stay out of direct sunlight. B) Restrict intake of high protein foods. C) Schedule extra rest periods. D) Go to the emergency room immediately. C) Schedule extra rest periods. Exacerbations of the symptoms of MS occur most commonly as the result of fatigue and stress. Extra rest periods should be scheduled (C) to reduce the symptoms. (A, B, and D) are not necessary. Which description of symptoms is characteristic of a client diagnosed with trigeminal neuralgia (tic douloureux)? A) Tinnitus, vertigo, and hearing difficulties. B) Sudden, stabbing, severe pain over the lip and chin. C) Facial weakness and paralysis. D) Difficulty in chewing, talking, and swallowing. B) Sudden, stabbing, severe pain over the lip and chin. Trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by paroxysms of pain, similar to an electric shock, in the area innervated by one or more branches of the trigeminal nerve (5th cranial) (B). (A) would be characteristic of Méniére's disease (8th cranial nerve). (C) would be characteristic of Bell's palsy (7th cranial nerve). (D) would be characteristic of disorders of the hypoglossal cranial nerve (12th).

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Institution
Evolve HESI Med-Surg
Course
Evolve HESI Med-Surg

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Uploaded on
January 28, 2025
Number of pages
107
Written in
2024/2025
Type
Exam (elaborations)
Contains
Questions & answers

Subjects

  • evolve hesi med surg
  • evolve hesi

Content preview

Evolve HESI Med-Surg 2024 Exam i,- i,- i,- i,- i,-




Review with Verified Solutions| i,- i,- i,- i,-




100% Correct| Already Graded A. i,- i,- i,- i,-




The nurse is assessing a client with bacterial meningitis. Which
i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,-



assessment finding indicates the client may have developed
i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,-



septic emboli? i,-




A) Cyanosis of the fingertips.
i,- i,- i,- i,- i,-




B) Bradycardia and bradypnea.
i,- i,- i,- i,-




C) Presence of S3 and S4 heart sounds.
i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,-




D) 3+ pitting edema of the lower extremities.
i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,-i,- i,- A) Cyanosis of
i,- i,- i,-



the fingertips.
i,- i,-




Septic emboli secondary to meningitis commonly lodge in the
i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,-



small arterioles of the extremities, causing a decrease in
i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,-



circulation to the hands (A) which may lead to gangrene. (B, C,
i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,-



and D) are abnormal findings, but do not indicate the
i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,-



development of septic emboli. i,- i,- i,-




In assessing a client diagnosed with primary hyperaldosteronism,
i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,-



the nurse expects the laboratory test results to indicate a
i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,-



decreased serum level of which substance?i,- i,- i,- i,- i,-

,A) Sodium.
i,- i,-




B) Antidiuretic hormone.
i,- i,- i,-




C) Potassium.
i,- i,-




D) Glucose.
i,- i,-i,- i,- C) Potassium.
i,- i,-




Clients with primary aldosteronism exhibit a profound decline in
i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,-



the serum levels of potassium (C) (hypokalemia)--hypertension is
i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,-



the most prominent and universal sign. (A) is normal or elevated,
i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,-



depending on the amount of water reabsorbed with the sodium.
i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,-



(B) is decreased with diabetes insipidus. (D) is not affected by
i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,-



primary aldosteronism. i,-




A client with diabetes mellitus is experiencing polyphagia. Which
i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,-



outcome statement is the priority for this client?
i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,-




A) Fluid and electrolyte balance.
i,- i,- i,- i,- i,-




B) Prevention of water toxicity.
i,- i,- i,- i,- i,-




C) Reduced glucose in the urine.
i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,-




D) Adequate cellular nourishment.
i,- i,- i,- i,-i,- i,- D) Adequate cellular
i,- i,- i,-



nourishment. i,-




Diabetes mellitus Type 1 is characterized by hyperglycemia that
i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,-



precipitates glucosuria and polyuria (frequent urination),
i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,-



polydipsia (excessive thirst), and polyphagia (excessive hunger).
i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,-

,Polyphagia is a consequence of cellular malnourishment when i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,-



insulin deficiency prevents utilization of glucose for energy, so
i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,-



the outcome statement should include stabilization of adequate
i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,-



cellular nutrition (D). (A, B, and C) relate to subsequent osmolar
i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,-



fluid shifts related to glucosuria, polyuria, and polydipsia.
i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,-




Based on the analysis of the client's atrial fibrillation, the nurse
i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,-



should prepare the client for which treatment protocol?
i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,-




A) Diuretic therapy.
i,- i,- i,-




B) Pacemaker implantation.
i,- i,- i,-




C) Anticoagulation therapy.
i,- i,- i,-




D) Cardiac catheterization.
i,- i,- i,-i,- i,- C) Anticoagulation therapy.
i,- i,- i,-




The client is experiencing atrial fibrillation, and the nurse should
i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,-



prepare the client for anticoagulation therapy (C) which should be
i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,-



prescribed before rhythm control therapies to prevent i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,-



cardioembolic events which result from blood pooling in the i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,-



fibrillating atria. (A, B, and D) are not indicated.
i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,-




Which information about mammograms is most important to
i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,-



provide a post-menopausal female client?
i,- i,- i,- i,-




A) Breast self-examinations are not needed if annual
i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,-



mammograms are obtained. i,- i,- i,-

, B) Radiation exposure is minimized by shielding the abdomen
i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,-



with a lead-lined apron.
i,- i,- i,- i,-




C) Yearly mammograms should be done regardless of previous
i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,-



normal x-rays. i,- i,-




D) Women at high risk should have annual routine and
i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,-



ultrasound mammograms. C) Yearly mammograms should bei,- i,-i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,-



done regardless of previous normal x-rays.
i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,-




The current breast screening recommendation is a yearly
i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,-



mammogram after age 40 (C). Breast self-exam (A) continues to i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,-



be a priority recommendation for all women because a small
i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,-



lump (or tumor) is often first felt by a woman before a
i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,-



mammogram is obtained. The radiation exposure from a i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,-



mammogram is low, so (B) is not normally provided. The i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,-



frequency of using routine and ultrasound mammograms (D) in
i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,-



women with high-risk variables, such as a history of breast cancer,
i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,-



the presence of BRC1 and BRC2 genes, or 2 first-degree relatives
i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,-



with breast cancer, should be recommended and followed closely
i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,-



by the healthcare provider.
i,- i,- i,-




In assessing cancer risk, the nurse identifies which woman as
i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,-



being at greatest risk of developing breast cancer?
i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,-




A) A 35-year-old multipara who never breastfed.
i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,-




B) A 50-year-old whose mother had unilateral breast cancer.
i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,- i,-

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