Medsurg 2 Exam 3
Med-surg 2 Exam 3 Study Questions and
Answers Top Graded 2025
Which of the following statements made by the nurse is most appropriate in teaching
patient interventions to minimize the effects of seasonal allergic rhinitis?
A. "You will need to get rid of your pets."
B. "You should sleep in an air-conditioned room."
C. "You would do best to stay indoors during the winter months."
D. "You will need to dust your house with a dry feather duster twice a week." -Correct
Answer ✔b. Seasonal allergic rhinitis is most commonly caused by pollens from trees,
weeds, and grasses. Airborne allergies can be controlled by sleeping in an air-
conditioned room, daily damp dusting, covering the mattress and pillows with
hypoallergenic covers, and wearing a mask outdoors.
When caring for a patient with a known latex allergy, the nurse would monitor the
patient closely for a cross-sensitivity to which of the following foods (select all that
apply)?
A. Grapes
B. Oranges
C. Bananas
D. Potatoes
E. Tomatoes -Correct Answer ✔a, c, d, e
Ten days after receiving a bone marrow transplant, a patient has developed a skin rash
on his palms and soles, jaundice, and diarrhea. What is the most likely etiology of these
clinical manifestations?
A. The patient is experiencing a type I allergic reaction.
B. An atopic reaction is causing the patient's symptoms.
C. The patient is experiencing rejection of the bone marrow.
D. Cells in the transplanted bone marrow are rejecting the host tissue. -Correct Answer
✔d. The patient's symptoms are characteristic of graft-versus-host-disease (GVHD) in
which transplanted cells mount an immune response to the host's tissue. GVHD is not a
type I allergic response or an atopic reaction, and it differs from transplant rejection in
that the graft rejects the host rather than the host rejecting the graft.
A patient's low hemoglobin and hematocrit have necessitated a transfusion of packed
red blood cells (PRBCs). Shortly after the first unit of PRBCs is hung, the patient
develops signs and symptoms of a transfusion reaction. Which of the following
hypersensitivity reactions has the patient experienced?
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV -Correct Answer ✔b. Transfusion reactions are characterized as a type II
(cytotoxic) reaction in which agglutination and cytolysis occur.
Medsurg 2 Exam 3
,Medsurg 2 Exam 3
A patient has begun immunotherapy for the treatment of intractable environmental
allergies. When administering the patient's immunotherapy, which of the following is the
nurse's priority action?
A. Monitoring the patient's fluid balance
B. Assessing the patient's need for analgesia
C. Assessing the patient for changes in level of consciousness
D. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of an adverse reaction -Correct Answer ✔d.
When administering immunotherapy, it is imperative to closely monitor the patient for
any signs of an adverse reaction. The high risk and significant consequence of an
adverse reaction supersede the need to assess the patient's fluid balance, whereas
pain and changes in level of consciousness are not likely events when administering
immunotherapy.
For which of the following individuals is genetic carrier screening indicated?
A. A patient with a history of type 1 diabetes
B. A patient with a family history of sickle cell disease
C. A patient whose mother and sister died of breast cancer
D. A patient who has a long-standing history of iron-deficiency anemia -Correct Answer
✔b. Genetic carrier screening should be done in families with a history of sickle cell
disease. Diabetes and iron-deficiency anemia are not amenable to any form of genetic
testing, whereas a family history of breast cancer suggests the need for presymptomatic
testing for estimating the patient's risk of developing breast cancer.
If a person is heterozygous for a given gene, it means that the person:
A. is a carrier for a genetic disorder
B. is affected by the genetic disorder
C. has two identical allels for the gene
D.has two different allels for the gene -Correct Answer ✔d
A father who has an X-linked recessive disorder and a wife with a normal genotype will:
A. pass the carrier state to his make child
B. pass the carrier state to all of his children
C. pass the carrier state to his female child
D. not pass on the genetic mutation to any of is children -Correct Answer ✔c
The function of monocytes in immunity is related to their ability to:
A. stimulate the production of T and B lymphocytes
B. produce antibodies on exposure to foreign substances
C. bind antigens and stimulate natural killer cell activation
D. capture antigens by phagocytosis and present them to lymphocytes -Correct Answer
✔d
One function of cell-mediated immunity is:
A. formation of antibodies
B. activation of the complement system
Medsurg 2 Exam 3
,Medsurg 2 Exam 3
C. surveillance for malignant cell changes
D. opsonization of antigens to allow phagocytosis by neutrophils -Correct Answer ✔c
The reason newborns are protected for the first 6 months of life from bacterial infection
is because of the maternal transmission of:
A. IgG
B. IgA
C. IgM
D. IgE -Correct Answer ✔a
In a type 1 hypersensitivity reaction, the primary immunologic disorder appears to be:
A. binding of IgG to an antigen on the cell surface
B. deposit of antigen-antibody complexes in small vessels
C. release of cytokines to interact with specific antigens
D. release of chemical mediators from IgE-bound mast cells and basophils -Correct
Answer ✔d
The nurse is altered to possible anaphylactic shock immediately after a patient has
received intramuscular penicillin by the development of:
A. edema and itching at the injection site
B. sneezing and itching of the nose and eyes
C. a wheal-and-flare reaction at the injection site
D. chest tightness and production of thick sputum -Correct Answer ✔a
The nurse advises a friend who asks him to administer his allergy shots that:
A. it is illegal for nurses to administer injections outside of a medical setting
B. he is qualified to do it if the friend has epinephrine in an injectible syringe provided
with his extract
C. avoiding the allergens is a much more effective way of controlling allergens, and
allergy shots are not usually effective
D. immunotherapy should only be administered in a setting where emergency
equipment and drugs are available -Correct Answer ✔d
Association between HLA antigens and disease is most commonly found in what
disease condition?
A. malignancies
B. infectious disease
C. neurologic diseases
D. autoimmune disorders -Correct Answer ✔d
A patient is undergoing plasmapheresis for treatment of systemic lupus erythematosus.
The nurse explains that plasmapheresis is used in her treatment to:
A. remove T lymphocytes in her blood that are producing antinuclear antibodies
B. remove normal particles in her blood that are being damaged by autoantibodies
C. exchange her plasma that contains antinuclear antibodies with a substitute fluid
Medsurg 2 Exam 3
, Medsurg 2 Exam 3
D. replace viral-damaged cellular components of her blood with replacement whole
blood -Correct Answer ✔c
The most common cause of secondary immunodeficiencies is:
A. drugs
B. stress
C. malnutrition
D. human immunodeficiency virus -Correct Answer ✔a
Which of the following accurately describes rejection following transplantation?
A. hyperacute rejection can be treated with OKT3
B. acute rejections can be treated with sirolimus or tacrolimus
C. chronic rejection can be treated with tacrolimus or cyclosporine
D. hyperacute rejection can usually be avoided is crossmatching is done before the
transplantation -Correct Answer ✔d
In a person having an acute rejection of a transplanted kidney, which of the following
would help the nurse understand the course of events (select all that apply):
A. a new transplant could be considered
B. acute rejection can be treated with OKT3
C. acute rejection usually leads to chronic rejection
D. corticosteroids are the most successful drug used to treat acute rejection
E. Acute rejection is common after a transplant and can be treated with drug therapy -
Correct Answer ✔b, e
a -Correct Answer ✔The nurse is presenting a community education program related to
cancer prevention. Based on current cancer death rates, the nurse emphasizes what as
the most important preventative action for both men and women?
a. Smoking cessation
b. routine colonoscopies
c. protection from ultraviolet light
d. regular examination of reproductive organs
d -Correct Answer ✔What defect in cellular proliferation is in involved in the
development of cancer?
a. a rate of cell proliferation that is more rapid than that of normal body cells
b. shortened phases of cell life cycles with occasional skipping of GI or S phases
c. Rearrangement of stem cell RNA that causes abdominal cellular protein synthesis
d. Indiscriminate and continuous proliferation of cells with loss of contact inhibition
a -Correct Answer ✔What does the presence of carcinoembryonic antigen (CEAs) and
alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) on cell membranes indicate has happened to the cells?
Medsurg 2 Exam 3
Med-surg 2 Exam 3 Study Questions and
Answers Top Graded 2025
Which of the following statements made by the nurse is most appropriate in teaching
patient interventions to minimize the effects of seasonal allergic rhinitis?
A. "You will need to get rid of your pets."
B. "You should sleep in an air-conditioned room."
C. "You would do best to stay indoors during the winter months."
D. "You will need to dust your house with a dry feather duster twice a week." -Correct
Answer ✔b. Seasonal allergic rhinitis is most commonly caused by pollens from trees,
weeds, and grasses. Airborne allergies can be controlled by sleeping in an air-
conditioned room, daily damp dusting, covering the mattress and pillows with
hypoallergenic covers, and wearing a mask outdoors.
When caring for a patient with a known latex allergy, the nurse would monitor the
patient closely for a cross-sensitivity to which of the following foods (select all that
apply)?
A. Grapes
B. Oranges
C. Bananas
D. Potatoes
E. Tomatoes -Correct Answer ✔a, c, d, e
Ten days after receiving a bone marrow transplant, a patient has developed a skin rash
on his palms and soles, jaundice, and diarrhea. What is the most likely etiology of these
clinical manifestations?
A. The patient is experiencing a type I allergic reaction.
B. An atopic reaction is causing the patient's symptoms.
C. The patient is experiencing rejection of the bone marrow.
D. Cells in the transplanted bone marrow are rejecting the host tissue. -Correct Answer
✔d. The patient's symptoms are characteristic of graft-versus-host-disease (GVHD) in
which transplanted cells mount an immune response to the host's tissue. GVHD is not a
type I allergic response or an atopic reaction, and it differs from transplant rejection in
that the graft rejects the host rather than the host rejecting the graft.
A patient's low hemoglobin and hematocrit have necessitated a transfusion of packed
red blood cells (PRBCs). Shortly after the first unit of PRBCs is hung, the patient
develops signs and symptoms of a transfusion reaction. Which of the following
hypersensitivity reactions has the patient experienced?
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV -Correct Answer ✔b. Transfusion reactions are characterized as a type II
(cytotoxic) reaction in which agglutination and cytolysis occur.
Medsurg 2 Exam 3
,Medsurg 2 Exam 3
A patient has begun immunotherapy for the treatment of intractable environmental
allergies. When administering the patient's immunotherapy, which of the following is the
nurse's priority action?
A. Monitoring the patient's fluid balance
B. Assessing the patient's need for analgesia
C. Assessing the patient for changes in level of consciousness
D. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of an adverse reaction -Correct Answer ✔d.
When administering immunotherapy, it is imperative to closely monitor the patient for
any signs of an adverse reaction. The high risk and significant consequence of an
adverse reaction supersede the need to assess the patient's fluid balance, whereas
pain and changes in level of consciousness are not likely events when administering
immunotherapy.
For which of the following individuals is genetic carrier screening indicated?
A. A patient with a history of type 1 diabetes
B. A patient with a family history of sickle cell disease
C. A patient whose mother and sister died of breast cancer
D. A patient who has a long-standing history of iron-deficiency anemia -Correct Answer
✔b. Genetic carrier screening should be done in families with a history of sickle cell
disease. Diabetes and iron-deficiency anemia are not amenable to any form of genetic
testing, whereas a family history of breast cancer suggests the need for presymptomatic
testing for estimating the patient's risk of developing breast cancer.
If a person is heterozygous for a given gene, it means that the person:
A. is a carrier for a genetic disorder
B. is affected by the genetic disorder
C. has two identical allels for the gene
D.has two different allels for the gene -Correct Answer ✔d
A father who has an X-linked recessive disorder and a wife with a normal genotype will:
A. pass the carrier state to his make child
B. pass the carrier state to all of his children
C. pass the carrier state to his female child
D. not pass on the genetic mutation to any of is children -Correct Answer ✔c
The function of monocytes in immunity is related to their ability to:
A. stimulate the production of T and B lymphocytes
B. produce antibodies on exposure to foreign substances
C. bind antigens and stimulate natural killer cell activation
D. capture antigens by phagocytosis and present them to lymphocytes -Correct Answer
✔d
One function of cell-mediated immunity is:
A. formation of antibodies
B. activation of the complement system
Medsurg 2 Exam 3
,Medsurg 2 Exam 3
C. surveillance for malignant cell changes
D. opsonization of antigens to allow phagocytosis by neutrophils -Correct Answer ✔c
The reason newborns are protected for the first 6 months of life from bacterial infection
is because of the maternal transmission of:
A. IgG
B. IgA
C. IgM
D. IgE -Correct Answer ✔a
In a type 1 hypersensitivity reaction, the primary immunologic disorder appears to be:
A. binding of IgG to an antigen on the cell surface
B. deposit of antigen-antibody complexes in small vessels
C. release of cytokines to interact with specific antigens
D. release of chemical mediators from IgE-bound mast cells and basophils -Correct
Answer ✔d
The nurse is altered to possible anaphylactic shock immediately after a patient has
received intramuscular penicillin by the development of:
A. edema and itching at the injection site
B. sneezing and itching of the nose and eyes
C. a wheal-and-flare reaction at the injection site
D. chest tightness and production of thick sputum -Correct Answer ✔a
The nurse advises a friend who asks him to administer his allergy shots that:
A. it is illegal for nurses to administer injections outside of a medical setting
B. he is qualified to do it if the friend has epinephrine in an injectible syringe provided
with his extract
C. avoiding the allergens is a much more effective way of controlling allergens, and
allergy shots are not usually effective
D. immunotherapy should only be administered in a setting where emergency
equipment and drugs are available -Correct Answer ✔d
Association between HLA antigens and disease is most commonly found in what
disease condition?
A. malignancies
B. infectious disease
C. neurologic diseases
D. autoimmune disorders -Correct Answer ✔d
A patient is undergoing plasmapheresis for treatment of systemic lupus erythematosus.
The nurse explains that plasmapheresis is used in her treatment to:
A. remove T lymphocytes in her blood that are producing antinuclear antibodies
B. remove normal particles in her blood that are being damaged by autoantibodies
C. exchange her plasma that contains antinuclear antibodies with a substitute fluid
Medsurg 2 Exam 3
, Medsurg 2 Exam 3
D. replace viral-damaged cellular components of her blood with replacement whole
blood -Correct Answer ✔c
The most common cause of secondary immunodeficiencies is:
A. drugs
B. stress
C. malnutrition
D. human immunodeficiency virus -Correct Answer ✔a
Which of the following accurately describes rejection following transplantation?
A. hyperacute rejection can be treated with OKT3
B. acute rejections can be treated with sirolimus or tacrolimus
C. chronic rejection can be treated with tacrolimus or cyclosporine
D. hyperacute rejection can usually be avoided is crossmatching is done before the
transplantation -Correct Answer ✔d
In a person having an acute rejection of a transplanted kidney, which of the following
would help the nurse understand the course of events (select all that apply):
A. a new transplant could be considered
B. acute rejection can be treated with OKT3
C. acute rejection usually leads to chronic rejection
D. corticosteroids are the most successful drug used to treat acute rejection
E. Acute rejection is common after a transplant and can be treated with drug therapy -
Correct Answer ✔b, e
a -Correct Answer ✔The nurse is presenting a community education program related to
cancer prevention. Based on current cancer death rates, the nurse emphasizes what as
the most important preventative action for both men and women?
a. Smoking cessation
b. routine colonoscopies
c. protection from ultraviolet light
d. regular examination of reproductive organs
d -Correct Answer ✔What defect in cellular proliferation is in involved in the
development of cancer?
a. a rate of cell proliferation that is more rapid than that of normal body cells
b. shortened phases of cell life cycles with occasional skipping of GI or S phases
c. Rearrangement of stem cell RNA that causes abdominal cellular protein synthesis
d. Indiscriminate and continuous proliferation of cells with loss of contact inhibition
a -Correct Answer ✔What does the presence of carcinoembryonic antigen (CEAs) and
alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) on cell membranes indicate has happened to the cells?
Medsurg 2 Exam 3
