RN ATI Comprehensive Predictor Exit Exam 2025 #1;
With Complete 180 Questions From Recent Actual Exam
Retake| Scored 95%|Correct Answers and Rationale|
Verified| Assured 95% Score Guide
Question 1:
A nurse is caring for a child who has cystic fibrosis and requires postural drainage. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take?
A. Perform the procedure twice each day.
B. Hold the hand flat to perform percussions on the child.
C. Administer a bronchodilator after the procedure.
D. Perform the procedure prior to meals.
Correct Ans: D.
Explanation: The best time to perform postural drainage is prior to meals to avoid triggering
vomiting. This procedure requires the child to be positioned in ways that may cause discomfort if
done after meals. Performing postural drainage before meals helps to clear mucus from the
airways, improving breathing without interference from a full stomach.
, • A. Perform the procedure twice each day: While postural drainage is often performed
more than once a day, the frequency depends on the child's condition and specific orders.
It’s not always limited to twice daily.
• B. Hold the hand flat to perform percussions on the child: The correct method of
performing percussions for postural drainage involves cupping the hands to create a
hollow space that maximizes the effect of the percussion. A flat hand can be ineffective
and may cause injury.
• C. Administer a bronchodilator after the procedure: A bronchodilator is typically given
before postural drainage to help open the airways and make it easier to clear mucus.
Administering it after the procedure is not optimal.
Question 2:
A nurse is developing a plan of care for a newborn whose mother tested positive for heroin
during pregnancy. The newborn is experiencing neonatal abstinence syndrome. Which of
the following actions should the nurse include in the plan?
A. Maintain eye contact with the newborn during feedings.
B. Swaddle the newborn with his legs extended.
C. Minimize noise in the newborn's environment.
D. Administer naloxone to the newborn.
Correct Ans: C.
Explanation: Newborns experiencing neonatal abstinence syndrome are highly sensitive to
environmental stimuli. Minimizing noise helps prevent overstimulation, which can exacerbate
withdrawal symptoms such as irritability, tremors, and crying. A calm, quiet environment
supports the infant's ability to manage withdrawal.
, • A. Maintain eye contact with the newborn during feedings: This action may be too
stimulating for a newborn with neonatal abstinence syndrome. Eye contact can increase
arousal and may worsen withdrawal symptoms.
• B. Swaddle the newborn with his legs extended: It’s better to swaddle a newborn with
their legs flexed, as this position is more comfortable and can reduce discomfort.
Extending the legs may increase discomfort or agitation.
• D. Administer naloxone to the newborn: Naloxone is used to reverse opioid toxicity, but
it is typically not given to newborns with neonatal abstinence syndrome unless there is a
clear overdose situation. Supportive care is the primary approach.
Question 3:
A nurse is admitting a client to a medical-surgical unit. When performing medication
reconciliation for the client, which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Include any adverse effects of the medications the client might develop.
B. Exclude nutritional supplements from the list of medications the client reports.
C. Encourage the client to make his own list after he returns to his home.
D. Compare new prescriptions with the list of medications the client reports.
Correct Ans: D.
Explanation: Medication reconciliation is the process of ensuring that the client’s medication
list is accurate and up to date. The nurse should compare the list of medications the client
currently takes with any new prescriptions to ensure there are no discrepancies, duplications, or
drug interactions.
• A. Include any adverse effects of the medications the client might develop: While it is
important to assess for potential adverse effects, medication reconciliation focuses on
ensuring accuracy of the medication list, not on potential side effects.
, • B. Exclude nutritional supplements from the list of medications the client reports:
Nutritional supplements should be included in the medication reconciliation process
because they can interact with prescription medications.
• C. Encourage the client to make his own list after he returns to his home: The nurse
should ensure the list is accurate while the client is present, not after they leave. It's
important to verify the list together to avoid any omissions.
Question 4:
A school nurse is teaching a parent about absence seizures. Which of the following
information should the nurse include?
A. "The child usually has an aura prior to onset."
B. "This type of seizure can be mistaken for daydreaming."
C. "This type of seizure lasts 30 to 60 seconds."
D. "This type of seizure has a gradual onset."
Correct Ans: B.
,Explanation: Absence seizures often appear as if the child is daydreaming or "zoning out," as
the child experiences a brief loss of awareness. These seizures can be subtle, lasting just a few
seconds, and may go unnoticed, leading to misinterpretation.
• A. "The child usually has an aura prior to onset": Absence seizures typically do not have
an aura. An aura is more common in other types of seizures, such as focal seizures.
• C. "This type of seizure lasts 30 to 60 seconds": Absence seizures are usually brief,
lasting only 10-20 seconds, not 30 to 60 seconds.
• D. "This type of seizure has a gradual onset": Absence seizures have an abrupt onset and
end quickly, without a gradual build-up.
Question 5:
A nurse is planning care for an older adult client who has dementia. Which of the following
interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care? (Select all that apply)
A. Reinforce orientation to time, place, and person.
B. Allow the client to choose among a variety of activities each day.
C. Give the client one simple direction at a time.
D. Establish eye contact when communicating with the client.
E. Refute the client's delusions using logic.
,Correct Ans: A. B. C. D.
Explanation:
• A. Reinforce orientation to time, place, and person: This helps the client maintain some
connection to reality and reduces confusion. Reorienting them as needed can improve
their sense of security.
• B. Allow the client to choose among a variety of activities each day: Offering choices can
enhance the client’s sense of autonomy and prevent frustration. However, it should be
limited to a manageable number of options.
• C. Give the client one simple direction at a time: Breaking tasks into simple steps helps to
avoid overwhelming the client and makes it easier for them to follow instructions.
• D. Establish eye contact when communicating with the client: Making eye contact helps
to engage the client, improve communication, and foster a sense of connection.
• E. Refute the client's delusions using logic: This approach is not recommended for clients
with dementia. Attempting to refute delusions can cause agitation and distress. It is better
to offer reassurance and avoid confrontation.
Question 6:
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is at 14 weeks of gestation about findings to
report to the provider. Which of the following findings should the nurse include in the
teaching?
A. Bleeding gums
B. Faintness upon rising
C. Swelling of the face
D. Urinary frequency
Correct Ans: C.
,Explanation:
Swelling of the face can indicate a serious complication in pregnancy, such as preeclampsia,
which involves high blood pressure and can affect organs, including the kidneys and liver. This
requires prompt evaluation by the provider.
• A. Bleeding gums: Mild gum bleeding can be common during pregnancy due to hormonal
changes that increase blood flow to the gums, but it’s generally not a concern unless it’s
severe.
• B. Faintness upon rising: Mild faintness or dizziness can be normal during pregnancy,
especially in early stages due to blood volume changes and low blood pressure. However,
if it’s persistent or severe, it should be reported.
• D. Urinary frequency: Increased urinary frequency is a normal part of pregnancy as the
growing uterus places pressure on the bladder, especially during the first and third
trimesters. B: Faintness upon rising?
Why not choice B: Faintness upon rising?
• Faintness or lightheadedness upon standing is a common occurrence in pregnancy,
especially during the first and second trimesters. This phenomenon is usually caused by
postural hypotension (a drop in blood pressure when changing positions), which can be
due to several factors in pregnancy, such as:
• Hormonal changes: Pregnancy increases levels of progesterone, which causes blood
vessels to dilate (relax), leading to a temporary drop in blood pressure when the woman
stands up.
• Increased blood volume: As the body adjusts to pregnancy, the cardiovascular system
adapts to the increased blood volume and circulation, which can occasionally lead to mild
dizziness or faintness.
• While faintness upon rising can be uncomfortable, it is usually not a red flag unless it
becomes frequent or severe, or if it is accompanied by other concerning symptoms such
as severe headaches, blurry vision, or swelling. In such cases, it may suggest an
underlying issue like low blood pressure or anemia, and further evaluation would be
needed.
, • Why choice C. Swelling of the face is the Correct Answer:
• On the other hand, swelling of the face can be a more serious concern in pregnancy. It
may be indicative of preeclampsia, a condition that involves high blood pressure and
damage to organs (usually the kidneys or liver). Swelling of the face (especially when it
occurs suddenly or is associated with other symptoms like headache, vision changes, or
upper abdominal pain) should be reported immediately because preeclampsia requires
medical management.
• Faintness upon rising is common and usually benign during pregnancy, though it should
still be monitored if it becomes frequent or severe.
• Swelling of the face is more concerning and may be a sign of preeclampsia, a serious
condition that requires immediate medical attention.
• Thus, swelling of the face is a more critical finding to report to the provider immediately,
as it could indicate a potentially dangerous complication like preeclampsia.
Question 7:
A nurse is caring for a female client who requests a contraceptive diaphragm. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take first?
, A. Document the client's level of understanding about potential adverse effects.
B. Teach the client how to insert the diaphragm.
C. Determine the client's knowledge about diaphragm use.
D. Supervise return demonstration of diaphragm use.
Correct Ans: C.
Explanation:
The first step in providing care for a contraceptive diaphragm is to assess the client's knowledge.
This will allow the nurse to tailor the teaching to the client’s level of understanding and provide
the most relevant information.
• A. Document the client's level of understanding about potential adverse effects:
Documentation comes after the assessment and teaching process.
• B. Teach the client how to insert the diaphragm: Teaching should be based on an
understanding of the client’s knowledge first.
• D. Supervise return demonstration of diaphragm use: This should occur after the nurse
has ensured the client understands how to use the diaphragm.
Question 8:
A charge nurse is delegating care for a group of clients. Which of the following tasks should
the charge nurse assign to a licensed practical nurse?
A. Perform a sterile dressing change for a client who has an abdominal wound.
B. Complete discharge teaching for a client who has a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus.
C. Perform an admission assessment for a client who is scheduled for surgery.
D. Complete the Glasgow Coma Scale for a client who has an evolving stroke.
Correct Ans: A.
With Complete 180 Questions From Recent Actual Exam
Retake| Scored 95%|Correct Answers and Rationale|
Verified| Assured 95% Score Guide
Question 1:
A nurse is caring for a child who has cystic fibrosis and requires postural drainage. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take?
A. Perform the procedure twice each day.
B. Hold the hand flat to perform percussions on the child.
C. Administer a bronchodilator after the procedure.
D. Perform the procedure prior to meals.
Correct Ans: D.
Explanation: The best time to perform postural drainage is prior to meals to avoid triggering
vomiting. This procedure requires the child to be positioned in ways that may cause discomfort if
done after meals. Performing postural drainage before meals helps to clear mucus from the
airways, improving breathing without interference from a full stomach.
, • A. Perform the procedure twice each day: While postural drainage is often performed
more than once a day, the frequency depends on the child's condition and specific orders.
It’s not always limited to twice daily.
• B. Hold the hand flat to perform percussions on the child: The correct method of
performing percussions for postural drainage involves cupping the hands to create a
hollow space that maximizes the effect of the percussion. A flat hand can be ineffective
and may cause injury.
• C. Administer a bronchodilator after the procedure: A bronchodilator is typically given
before postural drainage to help open the airways and make it easier to clear mucus.
Administering it after the procedure is not optimal.
Question 2:
A nurse is developing a plan of care for a newborn whose mother tested positive for heroin
during pregnancy. The newborn is experiencing neonatal abstinence syndrome. Which of
the following actions should the nurse include in the plan?
A. Maintain eye contact with the newborn during feedings.
B. Swaddle the newborn with his legs extended.
C. Minimize noise in the newborn's environment.
D. Administer naloxone to the newborn.
Correct Ans: C.
Explanation: Newborns experiencing neonatal abstinence syndrome are highly sensitive to
environmental stimuli. Minimizing noise helps prevent overstimulation, which can exacerbate
withdrawal symptoms such as irritability, tremors, and crying. A calm, quiet environment
supports the infant's ability to manage withdrawal.
, • A. Maintain eye contact with the newborn during feedings: This action may be too
stimulating for a newborn with neonatal abstinence syndrome. Eye contact can increase
arousal and may worsen withdrawal symptoms.
• B. Swaddle the newborn with his legs extended: It’s better to swaddle a newborn with
their legs flexed, as this position is more comfortable and can reduce discomfort.
Extending the legs may increase discomfort or agitation.
• D. Administer naloxone to the newborn: Naloxone is used to reverse opioid toxicity, but
it is typically not given to newborns with neonatal abstinence syndrome unless there is a
clear overdose situation. Supportive care is the primary approach.
Question 3:
A nurse is admitting a client to a medical-surgical unit. When performing medication
reconciliation for the client, which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Include any adverse effects of the medications the client might develop.
B. Exclude nutritional supplements from the list of medications the client reports.
C. Encourage the client to make his own list after he returns to his home.
D. Compare new prescriptions with the list of medications the client reports.
Correct Ans: D.
Explanation: Medication reconciliation is the process of ensuring that the client’s medication
list is accurate and up to date. The nurse should compare the list of medications the client
currently takes with any new prescriptions to ensure there are no discrepancies, duplications, or
drug interactions.
• A. Include any adverse effects of the medications the client might develop: While it is
important to assess for potential adverse effects, medication reconciliation focuses on
ensuring accuracy of the medication list, not on potential side effects.
, • B. Exclude nutritional supplements from the list of medications the client reports:
Nutritional supplements should be included in the medication reconciliation process
because they can interact with prescription medications.
• C. Encourage the client to make his own list after he returns to his home: The nurse
should ensure the list is accurate while the client is present, not after they leave. It's
important to verify the list together to avoid any omissions.
Question 4:
A school nurse is teaching a parent about absence seizures. Which of the following
information should the nurse include?
A. "The child usually has an aura prior to onset."
B. "This type of seizure can be mistaken for daydreaming."
C. "This type of seizure lasts 30 to 60 seconds."
D. "This type of seizure has a gradual onset."
Correct Ans: B.
,Explanation: Absence seizures often appear as if the child is daydreaming or "zoning out," as
the child experiences a brief loss of awareness. These seizures can be subtle, lasting just a few
seconds, and may go unnoticed, leading to misinterpretation.
• A. "The child usually has an aura prior to onset": Absence seizures typically do not have
an aura. An aura is more common in other types of seizures, such as focal seizures.
• C. "This type of seizure lasts 30 to 60 seconds": Absence seizures are usually brief,
lasting only 10-20 seconds, not 30 to 60 seconds.
• D. "This type of seizure has a gradual onset": Absence seizures have an abrupt onset and
end quickly, without a gradual build-up.
Question 5:
A nurse is planning care for an older adult client who has dementia. Which of the following
interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care? (Select all that apply)
A. Reinforce orientation to time, place, and person.
B. Allow the client to choose among a variety of activities each day.
C. Give the client one simple direction at a time.
D. Establish eye contact when communicating with the client.
E. Refute the client's delusions using logic.
,Correct Ans: A. B. C. D.
Explanation:
• A. Reinforce orientation to time, place, and person: This helps the client maintain some
connection to reality and reduces confusion. Reorienting them as needed can improve
their sense of security.
• B. Allow the client to choose among a variety of activities each day: Offering choices can
enhance the client’s sense of autonomy and prevent frustration. However, it should be
limited to a manageable number of options.
• C. Give the client one simple direction at a time: Breaking tasks into simple steps helps to
avoid overwhelming the client and makes it easier for them to follow instructions.
• D. Establish eye contact when communicating with the client: Making eye contact helps
to engage the client, improve communication, and foster a sense of connection.
• E. Refute the client's delusions using logic: This approach is not recommended for clients
with dementia. Attempting to refute delusions can cause agitation and distress. It is better
to offer reassurance and avoid confrontation.
Question 6:
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is at 14 weeks of gestation about findings to
report to the provider. Which of the following findings should the nurse include in the
teaching?
A. Bleeding gums
B. Faintness upon rising
C. Swelling of the face
D. Urinary frequency
Correct Ans: C.
,Explanation:
Swelling of the face can indicate a serious complication in pregnancy, such as preeclampsia,
which involves high blood pressure and can affect organs, including the kidneys and liver. This
requires prompt evaluation by the provider.
• A. Bleeding gums: Mild gum bleeding can be common during pregnancy due to hormonal
changes that increase blood flow to the gums, but it’s generally not a concern unless it’s
severe.
• B. Faintness upon rising: Mild faintness or dizziness can be normal during pregnancy,
especially in early stages due to blood volume changes and low blood pressure. However,
if it’s persistent or severe, it should be reported.
• D. Urinary frequency: Increased urinary frequency is a normal part of pregnancy as the
growing uterus places pressure on the bladder, especially during the first and third
trimesters. B: Faintness upon rising?
Why not choice B: Faintness upon rising?
• Faintness or lightheadedness upon standing is a common occurrence in pregnancy,
especially during the first and second trimesters. This phenomenon is usually caused by
postural hypotension (a drop in blood pressure when changing positions), which can be
due to several factors in pregnancy, such as:
• Hormonal changes: Pregnancy increases levels of progesterone, which causes blood
vessels to dilate (relax), leading to a temporary drop in blood pressure when the woman
stands up.
• Increased blood volume: As the body adjusts to pregnancy, the cardiovascular system
adapts to the increased blood volume and circulation, which can occasionally lead to mild
dizziness or faintness.
• While faintness upon rising can be uncomfortable, it is usually not a red flag unless it
becomes frequent or severe, or if it is accompanied by other concerning symptoms such
as severe headaches, blurry vision, or swelling. In such cases, it may suggest an
underlying issue like low blood pressure or anemia, and further evaluation would be
needed.
, • Why choice C. Swelling of the face is the Correct Answer:
• On the other hand, swelling of the face can be a more serious concern in pregnancy. It
may be indicative of preeclampsia, a condition that involves high blood pressure and
damage to organs (usually the kidneys or liver). Swelling of the face (especially when it
occurs suddenly or is associated with other symptoms like headache, vision changes, or
upper abdominal pain) should be reported immediately because preeclampsia requires
medical management.
• Faintness upon rising is common and usually benign during pregnancy, though it should
still be monitored if it becomes frequent or severe.
• Swelling of the face is more concerning and may be a sign of preeclampsia, a serious
condition that requires immediate medical attention.
• Thus, swelling of the face is a more critical finding to report to the provider immediately,
as it could indicate a potentially dangerous complication like preeclampsia.
Question 7:
A nurse is caring for a female client who requests a contraceptive diaphragm. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take first?
, A. Document the client's level of understanding about potential adverse effects.
B. Teach the client how to insert the diaphragm.
C. Determine the client's knowledge about diaphragm use.
D. Supervise return demonstration of diaphragm use.
Correct Ans: C.
Explanation:
The first step in providing care for a contraceptive diaphragm is to assess the client's knowledge.
This will allow the nurse to tailor the teaching to the client’s level of understanding and provide
the most relevant information.
• A. Document the client's level of understanding about potential adverse effects:
Documentation comes after the assessment and teaching process.
• B. Teach the client how to insert the diaphragm: Teaching should be based on an
understanding of the client’s knowledge first.
• D. Supervise return demonstration of diaphragm use: This should occur after the nurse
has ensured the client understands how to use the diaphragm.
Question 8:
A charge nurse is delegating care for a group of clients. Which of the following tasks should
the charge nurse assign to a licensed practical nurse?
A. Perform a sterile dressing change for a client who has an abdominal wound.
B. Complete discharge teaching for a client who has a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus.
C. Perform an admission assessment for a client who is scheduled for surgery.
D. Complete the Glasgow Coma Scale for a client who has an evolving stroke.
Correct Ans: A.
