ACLC ENTRANCE EXAM WITH ANSWERS

"Do not keep recon forces in reserve". Does that mean to use all forces simultaneously ? - answer-NO 1. ACO - answer-Provides directions to de-conflict airspace and air defense plans in order to avoid mutual interference, facilitate air defense identification, safely accommodate and expedite airflow, and prevent fratricide. 26. How many channels of extended tactical voice communication does the RQ-7B Shadow UAS have in its communication relay package? - answer-One-FM 29. The ARS conducts the following tasks - answer-A. Zone, route and area reconnaissance B. Attack C. Screen D. Guard and area security (when task organized) E. Movement to contact F. Reconnaissance in force (when task organized) 3 steps of TLPs done in order - answer-Receive Mission Issue WARNORD Make Tentative Plan 50. ______________________________ are the simultaneous or synchronized employment of ______________ with ____________________ and fires to seize, - answer-B. Air ground operations, ground forces, aviation maneuver 53. According to FM 3-04, the combat range of the Shadow RQ-7B UAS is ______ Km - answer-125km 54. According to FM 3-04, the cruise speed of the MQ-1C is ______ kts. - answer-80 kts 55. According to FM 3-04, the cruise speed of the Shadow RQ-7B UAS is: - answer-70-80kts 57. In regards to UAS systems, what threat systems need to be identified and avoided? - answer-B. Medium and high altitude ADA, surface to air missiles, and man portable air defense 60. Screens are _______ __ _______ missions to enable maximum combat power to remain uncommented in the protected force. - answer-Economy of force 62. The commander determines reconnaissance objectives based on _____________ ___________ Requirements. - answer-Priority Intelligence 63. What control measures does a commander use to maintain positive control during a route reconnaissance? - answer-Checkpoints, LD just short of where contact is expected, LOA beyond the releaqse point, Start point, Phase lines 64. What is the primary difference between security and reconnaissance missions? - answer-Focus of the effort 65. What payload(s) is the Gray Eagle MQ-1C UAS equipped with? (Check all that apply) - answer-Electro optical camera, synthetic aperture radar, ground moving target indicator 66. What task does the Gray Eagle MQ-1C UAS not perform when tasked to support the CAB? - answer-Surveillance 67. When is reconnaissance performed? - answer- 74. In order to minimize risk and maximize the effectiveness of Army Aviation, commanders must ensure detailed planning and coordination with next higher airspace element in order to integrate their aircraft (manned and unmanned) requirements by using the following? (Check all that apply) - answer-ACO/ATO 76. Focus for Commander's Reconnaissance Guidance can be any of the following: - answer-Threat(SSCLD), Terrain(OAKOC), Society(PAtterns of life), Infrastructure (CCHET) According to FM 3-04, the Shadow RQ-7B UAS is capable of range finding, designating, and pointing with its payload. - answer-True Action force (OPFOR) - answer-Resonsible for primary task that accomplishes the mission Action forces include : - answer-Exploitation, Strike, and Mission Active development - answer-Forceful maneuver, fires, or both to develop situation, limited by rules of engagement Advance Guard - answer-offensive in nature, finding and defeating enemy along axis of advance Advance guard requires artillery coverage? - answer-True Aerial security is a form of area security? - answer-True After gaining contact during Reconn? - answer-Maintain contact with smallest force, prevent decisive engagement, retain freedom of maneuver, and adequate combat power. Air route recon is a type of route recon? - answer-Yes Airspace Coordination Area - answer-A fire support coordination measure, is a three-dimensional block of airspace in a target area in which friendly aircraft are reasonably safe from friendly surface fires Although the ___ is fully capable of conducting attacks, the integration of _________ at the _______ level make the ___ the best formation for conducting reconnaissance, security and movement to contact as primary missions, with attack operations as a secondary mission. - answer-ARS, RQ7B, TRP, ARS AO - answer-Area defined by the joint force commander for land and maritime forces that should be large enough to accomplish their missions and protect their forces Area - answer-reconnaissance is a form of reconnaissance that focuses on obtaining detailed information about the terrain or enemy activity within a prescribed area. Area of influence - answer-Area where the CMDR is directly capable of influencing operations by maneuver or fire systems normally under the commander's command or control Area of interest - answer-Area of concern to the CMDR that includes the area of influence, which extends into enemy territory. Area security is used to protect what? - answer-Friendly forces, installations, routes, actions Army Aviation attack reconnaissance units are specifically equipped trained and organized to conduct all forms of reconnaissance except what? - answer-Special Army Aviation Core Competancies - answer--Provide accurate/timely information collection -Provide reaction time and manuever space -Air Assault ground manuever forces -Air movement of personnel, equipment, or supplies -Destroy, defeat, disrupt, divert, or delay enemy forces -Evacuate wounded or recover isolated personnel -Enable mission command over extended ranges Assault force (OPFOR) - answer-Tasked with destroying enemy force or seizing a position Assigned - answer-Placed in units in an organization where such placement is relatively permanent, and/or where such organization controls or administers the unit or personnel for the primary function of the unit.. At what level and below are OPFOR units refered to as elements? - answer-Battalion ATO - answer-The ATO tasks and disseminates to Service components, subordinate units, and command and control agencies the projected sorties, capabilities, and forces to targets and specific missions. This process normally provides specific instructions, such as, call signs, targets, controlling agencies, and general instructions. To intelligence staffs at the various maneuver echelons, the ATO outlines the daily schedule of aerial reconnaissance missions. Attached - answer-The placement of units or personnel in an organization is relatively temporary. Attack recon unit can serve as guard force HQ but must be augmented with ground maneuver and fires? - answer-True BHO - answer- BPT mission - answer-A mission assigned to a unit that might be executed. Can UAS provide a full LZ/PZ recon without the assistance of other assets? - answer-NO CCIR - answer-An information requirement identified by the commander as being critical to facilitating timely decision making CFL - answer-Coordinated fire line: a line beyond which conventional and indirect surface fire support means may fire at any time within the boundaries of the establishing headquarters without additional coordination. The purpose of the CFL is to expedite the surface-to-surface attack of targets beyond the coordinated fire line. Located as close to the establishing unit as possible without interfering with maneuver forces. Characteristics of OPFOR integrated attack? - answer-Fixing the majority of the enemy's forces in place with minimum force necessary Using complex terrain to force the enemy to fight at a disadvantage Using flank attacks against moving enemy formations for maximum disruption Comabt range of MQ-1C SATCOM , OH and LOS? - answer-1200km sitcom and 300 km LOS Combat Power - answer-is the total means of destructive, constructive, and information capabilities that a military unit or formation can apply at a given time. Commander focuses recon in terms of what? - answer-Terrain, threat, civil considerations, and infrastructure Commander's critical information requirement - answer-An information requirement identified by the commander as being critical to facilitating timely decision making. Composition of ARS vs. ARB - answer-ARS- HHC, D , E 3 x line companies with 8 AH-64s and 4 RQ7Bs in each company ARB- HHC, D ,E, 3 x Line companies with 8 AH-64s, 1 x MQ-1C company of 12 aircraft Conditions for OPFOR conducting a dispersed attack? - answer-When threatened by superior force or unable to mass C2 for an attack Conditions for OPFOR conducting an integrated attack? - answer-Able to bring all combat elements to bear and possesses overmatch of the enemy. Contraint - answer-is a restriction placed on the command by a higher command. It may also be based on resource limitations within the command, such as organic fuel transport capacity, or physical characteristics of the operational environment, such as the number of vehicles that can cross a bridge in a specified time. Coordinating Altitude - answer-Uses altitude to separate users and as the transition between airspace control elements Coordination level - answer-Used to separate Fixed-Wing and Rotary-Wing aircraft by determining an altitude below which FW aircraft normally does no fly Cover - answer-Brigade-level, force oriented mission that protects the division or corps main bnody from detection and engagement by enemy forces Critical Tasks of a zone reconnaissance - answer-A. Find and report enemy forces in zone based on PIR. C. Conduct hasty visual inspection and classification of all bridges, overpasses, underpasses and culverts in zone. E. Locate and conduct hasty visual classification of all obstacles, minefields, built up areas and barriers in zone. F. Locate and conduct hasty visual classification of all fords, crossing sites and bypasses around obstacles and built up areas in zone. Cruise speed of AH64 - answer-110-120Kts Cueing - answer-Integrate one or more systems to direct foll on collecting of more detailed info by another system Decisive operations - answer-operations are operations that directly accomplish the mission that determines the outcome of a major operation, battle or engagement. Deliberate - answer-Level of detail when detailed and thorough reconnaissance and security tasks require time-intensive, comprehensive, and meticulous mounted and dismounted efforts to observe reconnaissance objectives and develop the situation. Difference between flank guard and screen? - answer-In a screen, BPs, ABFs, and ACMs are planned in depth Difference between guard and screen? - answer-A guard is a more robust force, Expected to engage enem