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NUR 215 Test 2 Exam Questions with Correct Answers

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NUR 215 Test 2 Exam Questions with Correct Answers

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NUR 215 Test 2 Exam Questions with
Correct Answers
A 78-kg patient in septic shock has a pulse rate of 120 beats/min with low central
venous pressure and pulmonary artery wedge pressure. After initial fluid volume
resuscitation, the patient's urine output has been 30 mL/hr for the past 3 hours. Which
order by the health care provider should the nurse question?

a. Administer furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg IV.

b. Increase normal saline infusion to 250 mL/hr.

c. Give hydrocortisone (Solu-Cortef) 100 mg IV.

d. Use norepinephrine to keep systolic BP above 90 mm Hg. - Answer-A

Furosemide will lower the filling pressures and renal perfusion further for the patient with
septic shock. Patients in septic shock need large amounts of fluid replacement. If the
patient is still hypotensive after initial volume resuscitation with minimally 30 mL/kg,
vasopressors such as norepinephrine may be added. IV corticosteroids may be
considered for patients in septic shock who cannot maintain an adequate BP with
vasopressor therapy despite fluid resuscitation.

A nurse is caring for a patient whose hemodynamic monitoring indicates a blood
pressure of 92/54 mm Hg, a pulse of 64 beats/min, and a high pulmonary artery wedge
pressure (PAWP). Which intervention prescribed by the health care provider should the
nurse question?

a. Elevate head of bed to 30 degrees.

b. Infuse normal saline at 250 mL/hr.

c. Hold nitroprusside if systolic BP is less than 90 mm Hg.

d. Titrate dobutamine to keep systolic BP is greater than 90 mm Hg. - Answer-B

The patient's elevated PAWP indicates volume excess in relation to cardiac pumping
ability, consistent with cardiogenic shock. A saline infusion at 250 mL/hr will worsen the
volume excess. The other actions will help to improve cardiac output, which should
lower the PAWP and may raise the BP.

An older patient with cardiogenic shock is cool and clammy. Hemodynamic monitoring
indicates a high systemic vascular resistance (SVR). Which intervention should the
nurse anticipate?

,a. Increase the rate for the dopamine infusion.

b. Decrease the rate for the nitroglycerin infusion.

c. Increase the rate for the sodium nitroprusside infusion.

d. Decrease the rate for the 5% dextrose in normal saline infusion - Answer-C

Nitroprusside is an arterial vasodilator and will decrease the SVR and afterload, which
will improve cardiac output. Changes in the D5/.9 NS and nitroglycerin infusions will not
directly decrease SVR. Increasing the dopamine will tend to increase SVR.

After a patient who has septic shock receives 2 L of normal saline intravenously, the
central venous pressure is 10 mm Hg and the blood pressure is 82/40 mm Hg. What
medication should the nurse anticipate?

a. Furosemide

b. Nitroglycerin

c. Norepinephrine

d. Sodium nitroprusside - Answer-C

When fluid resuscitation is unsuccessful, vasopressor drugs are given to increase the
systemic vascular resistance (SVR) and blood pressure and improve tissue perfusion.
Furosemide would cause diuresis and further decrease the BP. Nitroglycerin would
decrease the preload and further drop cardiac output and BP. Nitroprusside is an
arterial vasodilator and would further decrease SVR

To evaluate the effectiveness of the pantoprazole (Protonix) given to a patient with
systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS), which assessment will the nurse
perform?

a. Auscultate bowel sounds.

b. Ask the patient about nausea.

c. Check stools for occult blood.

d. Palpate for abdominal tenderness - Answer-C

Proton pump inhibitors are given to decrease the risk for stress ulcers in critically ill
patients. The other assessments will also be done, but these will not help in determining
the effectiveness of the pantoprazole administration

,A patient with cardiogenic shock has the following vital signs: BP 102/50, pulse 128,
respirations 28. The pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) is high, and cardiac
output is low. Which treatment would the nurse expect to be prescribed?

a. Furosemide

b. Hydrocortisone

c. Epinephrine drip

d. 5% albumin infusion - Answer-A

The PAWP indicates that the patient's preload is elevated. Furosemide is indicated to
reduce the preload and improve cardiac output. Epinephrine would further increase the
heart rate and myocardial oxygen demand. 5% albumin would also increase the PAWP.
Hydrocortisone might be considered for septic or anaphylactic shock

The emergency department (ED) nurse receives report that a seriously injured patient
involved in a motor vehicle crash is being transported to the facility with an estimated
arrival in 5 minutes. What should the nurse obtain in preparation for the patient's arrival?

a. A dopamine infusion

b. A hypothermia blanket

c. Lactated Ringer's solution

d. Two 16-gauge IV catheters - Answer-D

A patient with multiple trauma may require fluid resuscitation to prevent or treat
hypovolemic shock, so the nurse will anticipate the need for 2 large-bore IV lines to
administer normal saline. Lactated Ringer's solution should be used cautiously and
would not be prescribed until the patient has been assessed for liver abnormalities.
Vasopressor infusion is not used as the initial therapy for hypovolemic shock. Patients
in shock need to be kept warm not cool.

Which finding is the best indicator that the fluid resuscitation for a 90-kg patient with
hypovolemic shock has been effective?

a. There are no signs of hemorrhage.

b. Hemoglobin is within normal limits.

c. Urine output 65 mL over the past hour.

, d. Mean arterial pressure (MAP) is 72 mm Hg. - Answer-C

Assessment of end organ perfusion, such as an adequate urine output, is the best
indicator that fluid resuscitation has been successful. Urine output should be equal to or
more than 0.5 mL/kg/hr. The hemoglobin level and MAP are useful in determining the
effects of fluid administration, but they are not as useful as data indicating good organ
perfusion. The absence of hemorrhage helps to prevent further fluid loss but does not
reflect fluid balance.

Which intervention will the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient who has
cardiogenic shock?

a. Check temperature every 2 hours.

b. Monitor breath sounds frequently.

c. Maintain patient in supine position.

d. Assess skin for flushing and itching - Answer-B

Because pulmonary congestion and dyspnea are characteristics of cardiogenic shock,
the nurse should assess the breath sounds frequently. The head of the bed is usually
elevated to decrease dyspnea in patients with cardiogenic shock. Elevated temperature
and flushing or itching of the skin are not typical of cardiogenic shock.

Norepinephrine has been prescribed for a patient who was admitted with dehydration
and hypotension. Which data indicate that the nurse should consult with the health care
provider before starting the norepinephrine?

a. The patient is receiving low dose dopamine.

b. The patient's central venous pressure is 3 mm Hg.

c. The patient is in sinus tachycardia at 120 beats/min.

d. The patient has had no urine output since admission. - Answer-B

Adequate fluid administration is essential before giving vasopressors to patients with
hypovolemic shock. The patient's low central venous pressure indicates a need for more
volume replacement. The other patient data are not contraindications to norepinephrine
administration

A nurse is assessing a patient who is receiving a nitroprusside infusion to treat
cardiogenic shock. Which finding indicates that the drug is effective?

a. No heart murmur

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