NURS 3366 Module Five Questions With Complete
Solutions
A 4-year-old patient presents with bloody diarrhea. Possible
causes include _______ because_______.
a. Shigella: the microbe has caused inflammation in the lining of
the intestines.
b. Pseudomembranous colitis: C. diff has eradicated normal
flora.
c. Giardia: this protozoa invades the intestinal wall and causes
necrosis.
d. Diphtheria: this bacteria causes parotid enlargement. Correct
Answers a. Shigella: the microbe has caused inflammation in
the lining of the intestines.
A commonality of herpetic organisms that cause diseases like
chickenpox and shingles is that:
a. Each is caused by a bacterial organism that penetrates the
nervous system.
b. The causative microbe can remain dormant in the nervous
system.
c. The causative microbe causes bloody diarrhea.
d. Each is transmitted via vector. Correct Answers b. The
causative microbe can remain dormant in the nervous system.
A patient is diagnosed with a staph infection of the skin
(cellulitis) and is prescribed a penicillin antibiotic. A week later,
there has been no improvement of the symptoms. A specimen of
the draining wound is collected by the nurse for culture. The
, nurse suspects MRSA (methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus
aureus). Which protective personal equipment should the nurse
utilize when handling wound exudate?
a. A mask
b. A mask and gloves
c. Gloves
d. Gloves and a gown Correct Answers d. Gloves and a gown
A patient is diagnosed with a staph infection of the skin
(cellulitis) and is prescribed a penicillin antibiotic. A week later,
there has been no improvement of the symptoms. The wound
culture is positive for MRSA (methicillin-resistant
Staphylococcus aureus). Which option best describes the
pathology of MRSA?
a. A certain Staphylococcus aureus species developed a special
bonding affinity with penicillin.
b. The patient likely had a compromised immune system, as
evidenced by the cellulitis.
c. The Staph microbe mutated and developed beta-lactamase;
rendering the antibiotic useless.
d. Staphylococcus aureus is a microbe that does not respond to
any kind of penicillin antibiotic. Correct Answers c. The Staph
microbe mutated and developed beta-lactamase; rendering the
antibiotic useless.
A patient presents to the ED with fever, chills, myalgia (muscle
pain), and a dry cough. He says he has recently traveled to
China. He says he got a flu shot a year ago. Which is most likely
in this case?
Solutions
A 4-year-old patient presents with bloody diarrhea. Possible
causes include _______ because_______.
a. Shigella: the microbe has caused inflammation in the lining of
the intestines.
b. Pseudomembranous colitis: C. diff has eradicated normal
flora.
c. Giardia: this protozoa invades the intestinal wall and causes
necrosis.
d. Diphtheria: this bacteria causes parotid enlargement. Correct
Answers a. Shigella: the microbe has caused inflammation in
the lining of the intestines.
A commonality of herpetic organisms that cause diseases like
chickenpox and shingles is that:
a. Each is caused by a bacterial organism that penetrates the
nervous system.
b. The causative microbe can remain dormant in the nervous
system.
c. The causative microbe causes bloody diarrhea.
d. Each is transmitted via vector. Correct Answers b. The
causative microbe can remain dormant in the nervous system.
A patient is diagnosed with a staph infection of the skin
(cellulitis) and is prescribed a penicillin antibiotic. A week later,
there has been no improvement of the symptoms. A specimen of
the draining wound is collected by the nurse for culture. The
, nurse suspects MRSA (methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus
aureus). Which protective personal equipment should the nurse
utilize when handling wound exudate?
a. A mask
b. A mask and gloves
c. Gloves
d. Gloves and a gown Correct Answers d. Gloves and a gown
A patient is diagnosed with a staph infection of the skin
(cellulitis) and is prescribed a penicillin antibiotic. A week later,
there has been no improvement of the symptoms. The wound
culture is positive for MRSA (methicillin-resistant
Staphylococcus aureus). Which option best describes the
pathology of MRSA?
a. A certain Staphylococcus aureus species developed a special
bonding affinity with penicillin.
b. The patient likely had a compromised immune system, as
evidenced by the cellulitis.
c. The Staph microbe mutated and developed beta-lactamase;
rendering the antibiotic useless.
d. Staphylococcus aureus is a microbe that does not respond to
any kind of penicillin antibiotic. Correct Answers c. The Staph
microbe mutated and developed beta-lactamase; rendering the
antibiotic useless.
A patient presents to the ED with fever, chills, myalgia (muscle
pain), and a dry cough. He says he has recently traveled to
China. He says he got a flu shot a year ago. Which is most likely
in this case?
