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ATLS 10th Edition Post Test 3 Questions and Verified Answers (2025 / 2026) 100% Guarantee Pass

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ATLS 10th Edition Post Test 3

Actual Questions and Answers
100% Guarantee Pass


This Exam contains:
 100% Guarantee Pass.
 Multiple-Choice (A–D), For Each Question.
 Each Question Includes The Correct
Answer
 Rationale That Aligns with Atls Post Test 2025
Principles.

,QUESTION 1
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─────────────────
A 23-year-old man is brought immediately to the Emergency Department
from the hospital parking lot after being shot in the lower abdomen.
Examination reveals a single bullet wound. He is breathing spontaneously
and has a thready pulse but is unconscious with no detectable blood
pressure. Optimal immediate management is to:


A. Perform a Focused Assessment with Sonography for Trauma (FAST)
B. Initiate infusion of packed red blood cells
C. Insert a nasogastric tube and urinary catheter
D. Transfer the patient to the operating room while initiating fluid therapy


Answer: D


Rationale:
• In a hypotensive patient with a penetrating abdominal injury and signs of
shock, the priority is emergent surgical intervention to control hemorrhage.
• Although FAST (A) can be helpful in many trauma scenarios, it should not
delay immediate operative management in a patient who is periarrest or
profoundly unstable.
• While blood product resuscitation (B) and tubes/catheters (C) are
important, these should not delay or supersede urgent surgery in a
profoundly hypotensive gunshot victim.
• Transferring to the operating room with simultaneous fluid resuscitation
(D) best addresses the life-threatening hemorrhage.


───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─────────────────

,QUESTION 2
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─────────────────
A 22-year-old male presents following a motorcycle crash. He complains he
cannot move his legs. Vital signs: BP 80/50 mmHg, HR 70 beats/min, RR 18
breaths/min, GCS 15, and oxygen saturation is 99% on minimal
supplemental oxygen. Chest X-ray, pelvic X-ray, and FAST are all normal.
His extremities are uninjured other than weakness. Management should be:


A. 1 L of IV crystalloid and two units of packed RBCs
B. 1 L of IV crystalloid, mannitol, and IV steroids
C. Vasopressors and laparotomy
D. 1 L of IV crystalloid, followed by vasopressors if blood pressure does not
respond


Answer: D


Rationale:
• The presentation (hypotension with normal/low HR, no obvious external
hemorrhage, and spinal cord function loss) is suggestive of possible
neurogenic shock (spinal injury).
• Fluid boluses (D) are given first; if the patient remains hypotensive,
vasopressors may be required to maintain perfusion.
• While blood products (A) may be indicated for hemorrhagic shock, there is
no clear evidence of bleeding here.
• Mannitol/steroids (B) are not first-line for acute spinal cord injury; their
benefit is controversial and not supported by current guidelines.
• There is no indication (normal FAST, no abdominal findings) for laparotomy
(C).

,───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─────────────────
QUESTION 3
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─────────────────
Which of the following is MOST reliable to confirm endotracheal intubation?


A. Presence of breath sounds bilaterally
B. Absence of borborygmi in the epigastrium on auscultation
C. Presence of CO₂ in the exhaled air via capnography
D. Chest X-ray with the endotracheal tube tip appearing above the carina


Answer: D


Rationale:
• Proper endotracheal tube (ETT) placement is best confirmed by multiple
methods.
• Continuous waveform capnography (C) is the most immediate bedside
confirmatory test, but in many trauma protocols, a chest X-ray (D) is
required to confirm correct depth and location of the tube tip (especially to
exclude a mainstem intubation).
• Auscultation alone (A or B) can be misleading.
• The chest X-ray (D) is the final, most definitive confirmation for tube
position relative to the carina.


───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─────────────────
QUESTION 4
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─────────────────

, A 6-month-old infant, involved in a high-speed collision, arrives with multiple
facial injuries, lethargy, and severe respiratory distress. Bag-mask
ventilation is unsuccessful, and oxygen saturation is falling. Repeated
attempts at orotracheal intubation likewise fail. The most appropriate next
procedure is:


A. Administer heliox and racemic epinephrine
B. Perform nasotracheal intubation
C. Perform surgical cricothyroidotomy
D. Perform needle cricothyroidotomy with jet insufflation


Answer: D


Rationale:
• In an infant with a “cannot intubate, cannot ventilate” scenario, a needle
cricothyroidotomy with jet insufflation (D) is the recommended emergent
airway.
• A surgical cricothyroidotomy (C) in very young children has higher risks
due to the small cricothyroid membrane.
• Nasotracheal intubation (B) is usually not feasible or safe in severe facial
trauma.
• Heliox or racemic epinephrine (A) are adjuncts in subglottic swelling/croup
but not in an acute traumatic airway failure.


───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─────────────────
QUESTION 5
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─────────────────

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