Neuropsychiatric—MCQ || with 100% Errorless Solutions.

Which of the following drug is a proper choice for absence seizure? A. Valporate B. Gabapentin C. Carbamazepine D. Phenytoin correct answers A The most common causes of subarachnoid hemorrhage is A. Arterio-venous malformation B. Aneurysm C. Hypertension D. cavernous angioma correct answers B. The periumbilical area is innervated by which sensory deematones? A.C6 B.T2 C.T5 D.T10 E.S3 correct answers D Occlusion of which of the following arteries typically produces Wallenberg (Lateral medullary ) syndrome? A.Basilar artery B.Vertebral artery C.Superior cerebellar artery D.Anterior inferior cerebellar artery (AICA) E.Anterior spinal artery correct answers B A 61-year-old man with a history of hypertension has been in excellent health until he presents with vertigo and unsteadiness lasting for 2 days. He then develops nausea, vomiting, dysphagia, hoarseness, ataxia, left facial pain, and right-sided sensory loss. There is no weakness. On examination, he is alert, with a normal mental status. He vomits with head movement. There is skew deviation of the eyes, left ptosis, clumsiness of the left arm, and titu- bation. He has loss of pin and temperature sensation on the right arm and leg and decreased joint position sensation in the left foot. He is unable to walk. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) in this patient might be expected to show which of the following? a. Basilar artery tip aneurysm b. Right lateral medullary infarction c. Left lateral medullary infarction d. Left medial medullary infarction e. Right medial medullary infarction correct answers C