OPOTA Practice Test with correct answers 2024

Abduction - correct answer Placed in fear Explain the relationship between a SPO and a test question - correct answer The test question must respond directly to an SPO and every SPO may be the basis of a test question Explain the ultimate reason for law enforcement training - correct answer To be able to protect the life and property of yourself and the public 4511 - correct answer Traffic Laws - operation of motor vehicles 4513 - correct answer Equipment Violations 4549 - correct answer Criminal Traffic section 4510 - correct answer Covers driver's license suspensions List a Peace officers main goals - correct answer -enforce laws -preserve the peace -prevent crimes -protect civil rights and liberties -provide services Explain the factors necessary for the commission of a crime - correct answer Opportunity, Ability, and Desire State the purpose of the Bill of Rights - correct answer -Protect an individual's freedoms -Prevent the government from interfering in protected rights Laws are designed to - correct answer -Maintain order -enhance predictability -promote orderly social change -sustain individual rights -identify wrongdoers -mandate punishment Describe the major components of the criminal justice system - correct answer Law enforcement, courts, corrections Identify the relationship between race, genetics, and physical characteristics - correct answer Race is a modern concept used to classify people as similar, observable physical characteristics, it is not based on genetics. humans are genetically similar of all species, there is no distinct genetic profile that completely distinguishes one so called race from another. The connection between in-groups and out-groups and police legitimacy - correct answer Some individuals interpret their encounters with police in terms of their groups societal position rather than the immediate circumstance of the police contact Types of Racism - correct answer -Individual -Interpersonal -Institutional -Structural Two types of Bias - correct answer Explicit bias and implicit bias - common characteristics • Everyone possesses them • They have real-world effects on behavior • They can relate, for example, to race, religion, gender, sexuality, disability, height, weight, or age Explicit bias - conscious preference (positive or negative) for a social category Implicit bias - preference (positive or negative) for a social category based on stereotypes or attitudes that we hold and tend to develop early in life and that operate outside of our awareness Two modes of thinking - correct answer Automatic (System 1) - unconscious -effortless -automatic -uses associative memory -very fast More deliberative (System 2) -conscious -effortful -controlled -deliberative -slower Strategies to Counter Implicit Biases - correct answer - Guard against influence - Recognize everyone is Bias - Seek awareness and education - Know you are susceptible Explain the generally accepted ethical responsibilities of peace officers - correct answer owed to - - your community and its citizens - the law enforcement profession - your agency - your family and self NEVER - - allow cynicism to cloud your view of the people you serve - use excessive physical force when controlling a combative - accept gratuities - commit perjury Determine External and internal influences on behavior - correct answer External - - relationships with family and friends - local citizens - local media - department regulations - interdepartmental politics Internal - - officers own ethical and moral beliefs and values - Anger - Greed - Lust Explain the continuum of compromise - correct answer Being exposed on a regular basis to "special authority" and at the same time being exposed on a daily basis to harsh realities and an element of society that operates without values combine to severely challenge an officer's core values system Transformation from idealistic, ethical officer to self-serving, unethical officer is typically a subtle process Acts of Omission Occur when officers rationalize and justify not doing things for which they are responsible Includes passive resistance to organizational mandates and selective non-productivity. Acts of Commission - Administrative Officers begin to commit administrative violations Officer will typically face department sanctions, but not criminal prosecution Acts of Commission - Criminal At first, acts may appear innocuous and not much different than acts of administrative commission Common examples are theft and misappropriation Rationalization - nobody is being hurt, except for possibly the bad guys, who deserve it anyways Explain the steps in the decision making model and the application of PLUS filters - correct answer Step #1 - Define the problem Step #2 - identify alternative solutions available to address the problem Step #3 - evaluate the identified alternatives Step #4 - make the decision Step #5 - implement the decision Step #6 - evaluate the decision P.L.U.S. P - Policies L - Legal U - Universal S - Self Use of field notes - correct answer -Preservation of knowledge in written form -Foundation of the formal written report -Aids in further investigation -Evidence in court -Documentation of the officer's efforts in the field Types of information to be recorded in field notes - correct answer • complete information on victims witnesses and suspects involved • date time of offense or incident being reported • location of occurrence • type of place where offense or incident took place • details of offense or incident being reported • disposition of evidence property and subjects • corresponding report number Guidelines to be followed when taking field notes - correct answer -Head notebook page with day and time of shift -Do not place information from one incident on the same page with information from another incident -Write or print neatly so you can read and understand your notes later -Record all information in ink -Let victims and witnesses talk through the event before you start recording notes -Ask clarifying follow-up questions -Be as complete as possible -Consider the use of electronic data device or template -Do not record personal information in your notebook List the general elements of a crime - correct answer -A prohibited act ("actus reus") and... -A specific mental intent ("mens rea") that... -Occur at the same time ("concurrence") and... -Bring about a particular result made unlawful by the statute ("causation") Define the culpable mental state "purposely" - correct answer Purposely - a person acts purposely when it is the person's specific intention to cause a certain result or when the gist of the offense is a prohibition against conduct of a certain nature, regardless of what the offender intends to accomplish, thereby, is is the offenders specific intention to engage in conduct of that nature sexual conduct means: - correct answer sexual intercourse penetration by any object masturbation exhibition of private areas sexual contact - correct answer the intentional touching of the victim's intimate parts or the intentional touching of the clothing covering the immediate area of the victim's intimate parts, if that intentional touching can reasonably be construed as being for the purpose of sexual arousal or gratification Describe the purpose of the fourth amendment to the united states constitution - correct answer guarantee rights relating to arrests, searches, and seizures of person. Describe the relationship between the 4 degrees of suspicion and responses allowed by the Constitution - correct answer Hunch - interactions must be consensual Reasonable suspicion that a suspect is involved in criminal activity - suspect may be seized and detained for a brief investigation Probable cause to believe that a suspect is guilty - Suspect may be arrested Proof beyond a reasonable doubt - suspect may be convicted of the crime and punished Determine when a person is considered to be seized - correct answer In view of all of the circumstances surrounding the incident, a reasonable person would believe that the person was not free to leave Explain when an officer can use the rationale from "Terry" to detain a person - correct answer - An officer may detain an individual based upon the officer's reasonable articulable suspicion that criminal activity was being planned or was in the process of being executed. - Officers should apply the totality of the circumstances - while none of the circumstances standing alone would justify a terry stop, considered together, they may amount to reasonable suspicion. - if during the detention, additional facts are uncovered that supply the officer with probable cause to arrest, the individual may be arrested. - If grounds for arrest are not discovered in a reasonable amount of time, the detainee may be released Describe, under Terry, what is required of an officer to make an investigatory stop. - correct answer Have reasonable articulable suspicion to initiate the stop. - The officer must be able to articulate the reasons of their belief that criminal activity was afoot; A crime is about to be committed, or a crime is being committed describe the considerations an officer should be mindful of when conducting a Terry stop - correct answer - Use the least intrusive means of detention and investigation reasonable available that will achieve the goal - Conduct business of the stops as quickly as possible as to not prolong the period of involuntary detention - If, during that detention, additional facts are discovered that supply the officer with probable cause, the individual may be arrested - if grounds for an arrest are not discovered in a reasonable amount of time, the detainee must be released or the encounter risks becoming a de facto arrest Describe the requirements that must be established before a "terry" pat down/frisk - correct answer Officers are required to articulate a reasonable belief that the suspect is armed and the suspect poses a threat to them Explain the plain feel doctrine - correct answer While an officer may not search for objects other than weapons on a Terry stop. If the officer physically feels an object that the officer immediately recognizes as contraband, the object may be seized even if the officer knows it is not a weapon • This only applies when the identity of the object is immediately apparent to the officer from its shape and the way it feels • When the incriminating nature of the object is immediately apparent, seizing it does not invade the subject's privacy beyond what is allowed in a Terry stop. The officer may not seize an object that, unmistakably, is not a weapon or if determining its identity requires further manipulation • When determining if an object requires further manipulation (e.g., going in pockets, repeatedly squeezing the object) an additional invasion of privacy is necessary • That is not permitted during a Terry stop Once it is determined that an object is not a weapon, the search must stop unless there is a warrant, probably cause for arrest or consent Identify the evidentiary standard on which to base an arrest - correct answer An arrest must be based on probable cause Identify what, in the absence of consent or exigent circumstances, an officer must do before entering a private residence to make an arrest. - correct answer - Secure the appropriate warrants (Arrest warrants) - If making an arrest in the home of a third party, a search warrant to search the premises for the person to be arrested - Reasonably believe that the person to be arrested is present at the correct address listed on the warrant and knock and announce their presence Identify when an officer may make a warrantless arrest, nonconsensual entry into a private residence in order to make an arrest - correct answer Exigent circumstances must exist which demand and immediate response. - Considerations and examples of such circumstances - time of day of the offense and/or the arrest - the gravity of the underlying offense thought to be in progress (crime must be serious) - There is a risk of danger to the police or to other persons inside or outside the dwelling - they need to prevent subjects escape - The need to prevent imminent destruction of evidence - "hot pursuit" of a subject Explain the concept of hot/fresh pursuit - correct answer The pursuit, without unreasonable interruption, of a person who is trying to avoid arrest Differentiate curtilage from open fields - correct answer • Curtilage refers to the area immediately surrounding the home, which is usually used for domestic purposes (e.g., garage, yard) • Curtilage carries the same Fourth Amendment protection as the home • Any other land is considered open field • Open fields carry no Fourth Amendments protections • The USSC has established four factors to assist in determining the difference o Proximity of the area to the home o Whether the area is within an enclosure surrounding the home o The nature and uses to which the area is put (e.g., whether the area is used for family purposes) o The steps taken by the resident to protect the area from view of passerby • No single factor is determinative Explain the differences between active and passive resistance - correct answer - Passive resistance - When a person exhibits no resistive movement in response to verbal and other direction - Active resistance - when a person exhibits resistive movement to avoid physical control or, as a passive resistor, presents a credible threat to an officer (lying on hands and refuses to make hands visible) Describe when handcuffing may be considered unreasonable force. - correct answer The 4th amendment prohibits unduly tight or excessively forceful handcuffing during the course of a seizure - if the plaintiff complains about handcuffs being to tight and the officer ignores the complaint and the plaintiff has experienced some physical injury resulting from the cuffing, then it will hold up in court Describe when use of a chemical weapon may be considered unreasonable force. - correct answer Using chemical weapons on an arrestee who has already been subdued and who poses no threat is considered excessive force (not reasonable to use chemical weapon on someone who has quit resisting) Explain the civil liability considerations associated with using force against those with diminished capacity/mental illness. - correct answer - Different tactics should be employed against unarmed, emotionally distraught individual who is resisting arrest or creating a disturbance than would be used against an armed and dangerous criminal who has recently committed a serious offense - it is absolutely unnecessary for an individual to be mentally competent in order to pose a reasonable threat. actual mental state is irrelevant to any determination of reasonableness in the use of deadly force Explain the necessary steps in preparing for court - correct answer Ensure all evidence required for the case is accounted for, safely secured, and can be obtained prior to court Call and meet with the prosecutor to determine if additional assistance or information is needed Review notes and/or reports pertinent to the case Recognize the 4 elements that should be used to determine the primary physical aggressor in a domestic violence incident - correct answer - Any history of Domestic Violence or other violent acts by either person involved in the alleged offense that the officer can reasonably ascertain. - Whether the alleged violence was caused by a person acting in self defense. - Each person's fear of physical harm, if any, resulting from the other person's threatened use of force against any person or resulting from the persons use or history of the use of force against any person, and the reasonableness of that fear - The comparative severity of any injuries suffered by the persons involved in the alleged offense Temporary Protection Order (TPO) - correct answer Temporary Protection order (TPO) - A TPO is an order from the court that is available after a family or household member is charged with a violent or sexually oriented offense. - It removes the suspect from the shared residence and has other restrictions - In effect for the length of the case - it can be received by the victim at any time starting with the arraignment, but is over when the case is over - A TPO can be requested by: - the complainant - the alleged victim - a family or household member of the alleged victim - a peace officer may file the motion on behalf of the victim if the victim is so badly injured from the incident the he/she is hospitalized or unable to attend court - the court on its own motion - the person who requested the order shall appear before the court to provide the information concerning the basis of the motion. Criminal Protection Order (CRPO) - correct answer -issued by the court after a non-family/non-household member is charged with a violent, menacing, or sexually oriented criminal offense -CRPO is like a TPO for non-family or non-household members - broader in scope than the TPO because it can be in effect for up to 5 years and it can include other provisions (child support, custody) - a person may initially file for a TPO and then petition for a CRPO. (if this is the case then the TPO then becomes invalid) Stalking Protection Orders - Stalking or Sexually Oriented Offense Protection Order (SSOOPO) - correct answer - Protects the victim of stalking and sexually oriented offenses from a non-family or non-household member - available for victims whether or not criminal charges are filed - issued through the common pleas court List the factors that coupled with mental illness produce the greatest increase in potential for violence - correct answer - history of violence - substance abuse and dependence - personality disorders - psychotic thoughts - young male - under social stress - recent personal stress, crisis, or loss - early exposure to violence Describe the difference between traditional encounters and special population encounters - correct answer traditional encounters - the increased need to be non confrontational special population encounters - frequently benefit from a change in response to one in which de-escalation is the foundation Describe eight techniques of active listening - correct answer 1. Emotional labeling (i.e., identifying the other person's emotions) -Provides the opportunity for the other person to acknowledge his/her emotions and possibly explain their cause -Validates what the other person is saying rather than minimizing it -Once the emotions have been acknowledged, there is a better opportunity for the person's balance between emotion and cognition to be restored and facts to be developed 2. Reflecting/mirroring (i.e., repeating the last few words or gist of the person in crisis) -Helps validate for the other person that you are listening and understanding -May encourage the other person to continue speaking -Much shorter format than paraphrasing 3. Paraphrasing (i.e., restating in your own words the crux of the other person's message) -Demonstrates listening and understanding -Gives the other person the opening to clarify or correct his/her meaning 4. Summarizing (i.e., extended version of paraphrasing; restating both the other person's message and emotion) -Validates for the other person that he/she has been heard and understood -Reflects effort to understand the other person's viewpoint of the situation -It is a critical part of active listening, as it can bring a sense of relief to the other person and, thereby, reduce his/her actions that are being emotionally driven 5. Silence and effective pauses (i.e., deliberate silences before or after making a meaningful comment) -Silence - allowing there to be silence before speaking prevents prematurely cutting off the other person and gives the other person the opportunity to continue speaking -Pauses - when speaking, pauses increase attention and focus when they are used before a meaningful statement and prompt reflection when they are used after a meaningful statement 6. Minimal encouragements (i.e., verbal and non-verbal cues us Use LEAPS and its five basic communication tools that assist in generating compliance. - correct answer - Listen - actively listen and look interested - Empathize - try to understand where the person is coming from - Ask - ask general, open ended questions and opinion-seeking questions to gain understanding - Paraphrase - in your own words, repeat the persons message - Summarize - condense all that has been said and indicate the outcome, keeping it brief, concise, and inarguable Distinguish the EAR Model's three phases of a crisis encounter - correct answer Engage, Assess, Resolve Use the Loss Model to recognize the nature of a person's crisis. - correct answer - Loss of Reality - person may be frightened confused and have difficulty concentrating or communicating - may appear to have delusions or hallucinations - Loss of Hope - person may be emotional, very withdrawn, fatigued, feeling overwhelmed, crying, in despair, or presenting suicidal talk - strong feelings of being helpless - may have experienced a recent loss - Loss of control - person may be very angry, irritable, or hostile - con present himself as a victim when they are not listened to - may be manipulative, impulsive, destructive, or argumentative - Loss of perspective - This person may be anxious, worried, or nervous which can escalate to being panicked - physical symptoms include; trembling, shaking, chest pain, and/or discomfort - could also seem overly energetic or display extreme highs and lows during the encounter Identify the conditions under the ORC that allows a peace officer to remove a child form their caregiver - correct answer - there are reasonable grounds to believe that the child is suffering from illness or injury and is not receiving proper care as described in ORC 2151.03 and the child's removal is necessary to prevent immediate or threatened physical or emotional harm - the child is in immediate danger from the child's surroundings and that the child's removal is necessary to prevent immediate or threatened physical or emotional harm - a parent guardian or other household member of the child's household has abused or neglected another child in the household - believe that the conduct, conditions, or surroundings of the child are endangering the health, welfare, or safety of the child Describe the actions that, upon arrival at the scene, the initial officer assigned to the report of a missing child shall take - correct answer - Conduct a preliminary interview of the person making the report - verify the child is missing - secure a recent photo of the child for upload into the NCIC and other distribution Describe the information an officer should gather during a preliminary interview in a family abduction missing child case - correct answer - obtaining the information that should be gathered in any missing child's case - determine who has custody rights - confirming the suspected family member as the actual abductor - determining wether a child is in danger and whether activating an alert is appropriate State the period within which a law enforcement agency must enter into NCIC information regarding a missing person, 21 years of age or older, if foul play is suspected. - correct answer within 7 days (strongly suggested to be entered immediately) Determine when the criteria are met for activating an endangered missing adult alert - correct answer - person is confirmed to be missing - the individual is 65 years or older or has a mental impairment - the disappearance of the individual poses a credible threat of immediate danger of serious physical bodily harm or death to the individual - there is sufficient descriptive information about the individual and the circumstance surrounding the individuals disappearance to indicate that activation of the alert will help locate the individual Determine when the criteria are met for activating a blue alert - correct answer - a LEO has been seriously injured or killed and a suspect has not been apprehended... OR - is missing while on duty under circumstances warranting concern for the LEO safety - AND, there is sufficient descriptive information about the suspects or the circumstances surrounding the LEO injury, death, or disappearance to indicate the activation of the alert may help locate a suspect or missing LEO Describe who is at risk for being trafficked - correct answer - runaway/throwaways - foreign born persons, whether in the country legally or illegally - Migrant workers - Persons with drug addiction/substance disorders - Persons with mental disabilities or illness - persons with prior trauma - Persons with unmet basic needs - those with personal family history of human trafficking - those living in an unstable home environment Describe the two types of human trafficking included in Ohio's trafficking in persons law - correct answer - involuntary servitude - being compelled to perform labor or services for another against will - sex trafficking - sex for hire - includes exchange of anything of value - applies differently dependent on age of victim and whether or not they have a developmental disability What to expect of victims of human trafficking during interview - correct answer - denial that they are in a situation of exploitation or abuse out of fear of retaliation - project anger and aggression towards LEO - may remain silent and fearful - may take multiple interactions to piece together the full story and patience is crucial - may be drug dependent - may be confused on what is happening - may give fake stories until trust is established - may be reluctant to tell story as it is a traumatic event Describe the Ohio statutory rights provided to victims of crime. - correct answer - The right to have written information regarding rights as a crime victim be provided by the investigating enforcement agency - information about medical, counseling, housing, emergency , and other services that are available to the victim - information about the Ohio Victims of crime compensation program Describe the types of primary and secondary injuries that a victim may suffer - correct answer - Primary - Physical injuries including death and disfigurement - financial loss leading to economic hardship - emotional trauma and reactions (anxiety, guilt, sleep disturbance) - Secondary - injustice; believing the system has let them down - indignities; having to repeat morbid details in public several times - Isolation; lack of follow up and keeping the victim in the dark on the case identify practical and sensitive responses to the four core needs of crime victims - correct answer - They need to be and feel safe - reassure and continue to reassure victims that they are safe in law enforcement presence - They need to know what comes next and to receive fair treatment - have information and a referral system with names addresses and number for referrals - They need to be prepared to pay for unexpected financial losses and bills - ask about any financial burdens they crime may have imposed on the victim and inform them of the Ohio Crime Victim Compensation Program Describe the Smith System approach to driving. - correct answer An approach to driving that includes a five step system in which you must practice all steps until they become routine Aim high in driving - look as far ahead as possible to keep the driver's view up rather than looking down at the area in front of the car Keep your eyes moving - establish an orderly visual search pattern (e.g., look near and far, to the left and right, in the mirrors, at the instrument panel) Get the big picture - Become aware of the whole traffic scene - This is the mental process of putting together the clues received from the first two steps Leave yourself an out - Avoid being boxed in - Maintain a space cushion (e.g., 2-4 seconds between you and the vehicle in front of you) surrounding your vehicle - Increase space cushion as weather or circumstances dictate Constantly plan for eventuality of evasive actions Explain the dynamics of steering - correct answer Counter steering - a method of counteracting the forces created in a skid, dry or wet, by steering in the direction of the skid, or the intended path of travel Understeering - usually caused by excessive speed. The vehicle will have a tendency to continue in a straight line and resist turning due to a loss of traction with the front tires (i.e., wheels are turned and the vehicle continues straight) Over steering - Reduces the desired cornering radius as a vehicle progresses through a turn, requiring the driver to rotate the steering wheel away from the direction of the turn - Is the result of excessive speed, or hydroplaning, or improper braking as the rear wheels lose their lateral traction before the front tires, causing the rear of the vehicle to slide toward the outside of the turn List the acceptable hand movements for steering methods. - correct answer - Shuffle steering - Hand over Hand - Evasive Steering Describe the acceptable backing methods - correct answer With good, routine backing habits, an officer will be able to minimize the risks generated while backing during an emergency. The chances for a backing collision increase with emergency response because officers seldom practice backing at higher speeds with heightened emotions Describe how to clear an intersection - correct answer 1. Allows others to adjust to law enforcement vehicle approach. 2. Adjust speed to allow others to hear & see you. 3. Clear intersections. 4. Change siren pattern so public is aware there's a secondary vehicle; change pitch in advance of the intersection. Describe ways to reduce injury or property damage when a collision is imminent. - correct answer - avoid having the collision take place in the driver's quarter of the vehicle - try to strike the object at an angle - maintain steering and breaking control to avoid colliding with additional objects after the collision - steer to the rear - it minimizes injury by avoiding the passenger compartment and minimizes the crash severity by striking the lightest are of most vehicles Identify alternatives to a continued vehicle Pursuit - correct answer - Aircraft involvement - investigate later - suspect may come to you - termination techniques with additional training Proactive Patrol - correct answer Working to prevent crime rather than waiting for it to occur Considerations when dispatched to a crime in progress - correct answer - Urgency of situation - safety of any victim who may be under attack - traffic conditions for other responding units - agency policy and protocol Main responsibilities when responding to a crime in progress - correct answer - respond to the incident the most safe and tactically sound manner - secure the scene - Preliminary investigation Ways to Maintain Situational Awareness While Conducting Searches - correct answer - Be conscious and avoid normalcy bias that develops from taking multiple similar calls that do not produce a threat - avoid locking your focus on any one thing at the expense of what is happening around you - if working alone, continually stop, look, listen - if with others, have one person focused on the search and one focused on covering the searching officer Options for handling a dog - correct answer - if a dog encounter turns threatening, determine if any distractions are available - if a vehicle is close by and you have distracted the dog consider slowly backing up towards protection - put something between you and the dog - OC is the only chemical weapon effective on dogs and should be the only one considered Explain the different types of building searches - correct answer Unknown Risk - open doors, alarm drops, suspicious activity High Risk - active shooter, hot pursuit Identify the difference between cover and concealment - correct answer cover - a position or situation affording protection from gunfire concealment - anything that protects you from being observed Identify the two most common methods by which an officer may be injured or killed during an officer initiated contact - correct answer - felonious assault - Crash explain the meaning of the term officer initiated contact - correct answer - any situation in which the officer deploys directly from a cruiser to intentionally make contact with a suspect or citizen Explain the two legal foundations for making a vehicle stop - correct answer - Probable cause - when the facts and circumstances within the officers knowledge , and of which they have reasonably trustworthy information sufficient to warrant a person to believe that an offense has been, or is being committed by the person to be arrested - Reasonable suspicion - Is less than probable cause but more than a hunch and based on circumstances, common sense judgements, and inferences about human behavior, that criminal activity was being planned or is in the process of being executed Identify the 2 general categories for vehicle stops - correct answer - unknown risk - high risk Unknown risk vehicle stop - correct answer A vehicle stop which has an unknown potential for felonious assault or vehicle crash High-Risk Vehicle Stop - correct answer A vehicle stop which has a high potential for felonious assault or vehicle crash Describe information the officer should relay to the communication center prior to activating the overhead lights and/or siren - correct answer - Location (street/mile marker, cross reference) - vehicle registration (state, type, number) - vehicle characteristics (make, model, color, body style) - Occupants (number of people in car) - Nature of offense (contingent on threat assessment) Identify the goals in a high risk vehicle stop - correct answer -take all time needed to pre plan -wait for backup -create a wall with cruise position, maintain cover and concealment -keys, hands, eyes Identify reasons vehicles are stolen - correct answer 1. Joy riding/transportation 2. To commit other crimes 3. Theft for profit/commercial theft 4. Owner give up Describe common indicators associated with stolen vehicles - correct answer - abnormal driver behavior - license plate irregularities - condition of the vehicle - Unusual transportation of other vehicles or equipment recognize the methods of establishing a vehicle's identity - correct answer - ensure the license plate matches the registration - registration must match the VIN - Federal certification label Identify on the VIN plate that indicates it may be stolen - correct answer - characteristics on plate are not clean or clear - scratches or paint on the plate - inconsistent rivets - crooked VIN plate - damage to area near VIN - evidence the windshield has been removed Identify common methods thieves use to defeat the federal certification label on a vehicle - correct answer - removal and reapplication from donor car - alteration of existing label - replace with counterfeit label Recognizing criminal gangs and members - correct answer A group must meet all four criteria below to be considered a criminal gang •Recurrent interaction - the group interacts together on a regular and recurring basis •Organization/structure/leadership ‒Formal or informal identifiable structure, organization, or leadership within the group ‒These aspects may change and become more distinct as the group changes, grows, or alters its activities •Unity and signs of unity - the group demonstrates an apparent cohesiveness and allegiance that manifests itself in a common name, symbol, or sign •Pattern of criminal gang activity - members of the group, individually or collectively, engage in criminal activity that ‒Benefits the group or ‒Is related to the beliefs of, or membership in, the group, or ‒Enhances a member's status within the group In addition, members of a criminal gang usually share the following traits •Group name •Symbols, tattoos, or graffiti •Style of dress •Frequent congregation upon or laid a claim to a specific geographic location Identify signs of gang membership - correct answer • Admits to being a member of a group that meets the Revised Code criteria of a gang • A reliable informant identifies the person as a gang member • Resides in or frequents a particular gang's area • Adopts a particular gang's style of dress, symbols, or tattoos • Associates with known gang members or association can be proved through social media or other means • Has been arrested in the company of identified gang members for offenses consistent with gang activity • Has a documented criminal history • An individual must meet two or more of the indicators to be considered a gang member Information obtained from LEADS may be shared for criminal justice purposes ONLY... Misusing the LEADS system is guilty of - correct answer felony of the 5th degree Strip search - correct answer The inspection of a naked individual without scrutinizing the subject's body cavities Basic requirements for body cavity searches - correct answer - Must obtain a search warrant unless there is a medical emergency justifying a search - Must be conducted under sanitary conditions in a location that permits only the person being searched and the person conducting the search to observe. - Must be performed by a medical professional of the same sex. Communication between the escorting officers and detention facility personnel - correct answer is vital for the welfare of the arrestee and the investigation of offenses Major items for which the officer must be alert for during a medical or mental health screening - correct answer - Suicidal thoughts or plans - current serious or potentially serious medical or mental health issues needing immediate attention - the use of an electric weapon, pepper spray or other less than lethal use of force during the arrest - assaultive behavior - body deformities and ease of movement - condition of skin Identify how the Ohio Law Enforcement Gateway (OHLEG) is to be utilized. - correct answer OHLEG is to be utilized for law enforcement purposes only and is not for personal use or gain identify the degree of offense for unauthorized use of OHLEG - correct answer felony of the 5th degree Describe mob behavior - correct answer -A MOB is exhibited by persons under the stimulus of intense excitement and agitation; who lose their sense of reason, law and order, and respect for others -Ohio law describes a mob as a collection of people assembled for an unlawful purpose and intending to do damage or injury to anyone, or pretending to exercise correctional power over other persons by violence and without authority of law Escape mob -Highly emotionally charged crowd that is driven by fear -This fear creates unreasonable and frantic behavior that drives the crowd to seek individual safety -Difficult to control, so it is best to try to control their movement by routing them to areas where the potential for injury is lessened -Trying to block them in areas may increase the possibility of injury to the mob and the officers trying to contain them Aggressive mob -Will attack, riot, and terrorize -Goal is the destruction of property and physical attacks on others -These acts seem to feed off of each other and increase in severity until the mob is stopped Acquisitive (i.e., looting) mob -Has the desire to acquire something for free; loot for things such as food or merchandise -May also try to take the officer hostage Expressive mob -Is expressing intense feelings or revelry -Usually follows some special event (e.g., rival football game) -Can be very destructive Distinguish the basic concepts of perimeter crowd control.. - correct answer Linear strategy - deploys police forces as a blocking force along a roadway or geographic barrier perpendicular to access routes into the impacted area cordoning - surrounding a particular problem area by using linear strategy to seal off access on all sides sectoring - dividing the cordoned area into smaller sized units in which control can be re-established sector by sector once sufficient police resources are assembled to regain control state the common use for mobile field force - correct answer - to control unruly crowds - to seal off problem areas - to rescue citizen or officers from the crowd - to clear an area of hostile individuals by use of proactive tactics - to apprehend multiple offenders The Color Codes of Chemical Agents That May Be Used by Law Enforcement Agencies - correct answer HC labeling color code - Yellow CN labeling color code - Red CS labeling color code - Blue OC labeling color code - Orange Identify the primary reason for traffic enforcement - correct answer to reduce traffic collisions, their resulting injuries, and to facilitate the safe and expedient flow of vehicular and pedestrian traffic Identify the ORC section that covers definitions related to motor vehicle offenses - correct answer it is located in the .01 section of each chapter Identify the ORC section that covers moving violations - correct answer RC chapter 4511 Obedience to traffic control devices - correct answer R.C. 4511.12 OPERATION IN WILLFUL OR WANTON DISREGARD OF THE SAFETY OF PERSONS OR PROPERTY - correct answer R.C. 4511.20 driving while texting - correct answer R.C. 4511.204 Speed limits- assured clear distance - correct answer R.C. 4511.21 Lanes of Travel Upon Roadways of Sufficient Width - correct answer R.C. 4511.25 Driving to the left of center of roadway in overtaking and passing traffic proceeding in the same direction - correct answer R.C. 4511.29 Driving Upon Left Side of Roadway - correct answer R.C. 4511.30 Driving in Marked Lanes - correct answer R.C. 4511.33 Turn and stop signals - correct answer R.C. 4511.39 Right of way rule at intersections - correct answer R.C. 4511.41 Right of way rule through highways, stop signs, and yield signs - correct answer R.C. 4511.43 Child restraint system - correct answer R.C. 4511.81 Identify the ORC chapter that covers equipment violations - correct answer 4513 Time for lighted lights on motor vehicles - correct answer R.C. 4513.03 Tail lights and illumination of rear license plate - correct answer R.C. 4513.05 Stop light - correct answer R.C. 4513.071 Red Light or Flag Required - correct answer R.C. 4513.09 Mufflers - correct answer R.C. 4513.22 Identify the ORC chapter that covers driver's license suspensions - correct answer R.C. 4510 Identify the ORC chapter that covers motor vehicle crimes - correct answer R.C. 4549 List a peace officer's priorities in protecting the scene of a crash - correct answer - protect the crash victims and the first responders - always wear high visibility safety vest - check for injuries - protect the involved vehicles and other evidence at the crash scene - place sufficient and adequate warning devices - place appropriate directional signals within the scene area Identify the difference between contact and induced damage - correct answer contact damage - caused by direct contact with some object which is not part of the vehicle Induced damage - occurs when part of the vehicle is displaced evidence at a traffic crash that should be documented with photographs - correct answer - everything that was damaged and all physical evidence - entire sequence of events for OH1 - the approach at the crash scene - surface marks on the roadways - area of impact - final rest area - photographs form eye witness position and at eye level state the officer's assumed authority for traffic control - correct answer No person shall fail to comply with any lawful order or direction of any police officer invested with authority to direct, control, or regulate traffic Describe the primary responsibility of a first responder on a crime scene - correct answer - Officer safety - rendering aid - securing the scene - interacting with witnesses Describe what first responders should ensure before collecting any device that may contain digital evidence - correct answer - the scene has been secured and documents - legal authority exists to seize evidence - appropriate personal protective equipment is used Describe how to preserve digital evidence from mobile devices - correct answer older phones - Power off, remove battery, place in evidence bag, document chain of custody information on evidence tag Smart phones - if it is powered off leave it off - if on and locked with password - attempt to get password from suspect, note date, time, and password type. Place in airplane mode if available, power off if airplane mode is unavailable. document chain of custody on evidence tag Describe how to preserve non-traditional evidence - correct answer If you think the electronic evidence may be stored on third party sites, you will need to send the company a letter of preservation immediately so the data is not erased or altered Explain the crime scene photograph perspectives/viewpoints. - correct answer Overall or establishing shots - depicts the general condition and layout of the scene - captures how the scene is oriented Corners and side approach - stand in each corner and take overlapping photographs - stand at the sides and take perpendicular photographs Mid range or evidence establishing shots - frame the item in conjunction with some obvious landmark that is evident in overall shots Close up shots - fill the frame with the object - take photos with and without evidence placards Cardinal Rules of Crime Scene Photography - correct answer 1. Fill the frame 2. Maximize depth of field 3. Keep the lens perpendicular to the subject Explain the reasons for tracing stolen property - correct answer - May reveal perpetrator - May reveal other investigative leads - May reveal other crimes - Recovery for victim identify sources of information for tracing stolen property - correct answer - Department records and personnel - surrounding jurisdictions - owner/victim - LEADS/NCIC - Retailers - auto dealers - Commercial subscription data base services - Confidential informants - Pawn shop records - Junkyard/salvage dealers Identify resources to use to identify the value of the stolen property - correct answer - Owner/victim - Retailers - Bank loan departments - ORC - Internet resources Identify general indicators of stimulant use - correct answer - Restlessness - Talkative - Excitation - Euphoria - Exaggerated Reflexes - Loss of appetite - Anxiety - Grinding of teeth - Redness to nasal area - Body Tremors Identify paraphernalia associated with cocaine use - correct answer - pipes to smoke crack - small mirrors - short straws - rolled paper tubes - razor blades - small spoons - lighters - butane torch - chore boy - push rod - tire pressure gauge - aluminum can Identify Paraphernalia associated with methamphetamine use - correct answer - Cut straws - pipes - mirrors - needles - butane torches - chore boy - push rods - tire pressure gauges - aluminum cans Identify general indicators of depressant use - correct answer - Drunken behavior - uncoordinated - Drowsy - sluggish - disoriented - thick slurred speech Identify general indicators of narcotic use - correct answer - On the nod - Droopy eyelids - Depressive reflexes - dry mouth - facial itching - low/raspy speech - fresh puncture marks may be evident Identify paraphernalia associated with heroin use - correct answer - tiny knotted balloons the size of a pencil eraser - syringes - spoons - cotton swabs - cigarette filters - pieces of foil - bottoms of soda cans - gel capsules - folded paper bindles - small squares cut from grocery bags - small containers of water - containers made to carry some or all of the paraphernalia Identify general indicators of hallucinogen use - correct answer - Hallucinations - Dazed appearance - body tremors - uncoordinated - perspiring - disoriented - paranoid - difficulty in speech - nausea - Piloerection Identify general indicators of cannabis use - correct answer -Bloodshot eyes -Body tremors -Odor of marijuana -Disorientated -Relaxed inhibitions -Difficulty in dividing attention Identify paraphernalia associated with marihuana use - correct answer - rolling papers - cigars to make a blunt - small plastic baggies - stash cans - incense - pipes - bongs Identify general indicators of dissociative anesthetic use - correct answer - warm to the touch - perspiring - blank stare - repetitive speech - incomplete verbal responses - confused - muscle rigidity - possibly violent and combative Identify possible indicators of inhalant use - correct answer - disorientation - slurred speech - residue of substance on hand, face, or clothing - confusion - possible nausea Describe sensory perceptions needed to determine reasonable suspicion of drug use - correct answer - sight - behavioral - nervous behavior, acting paranoid, evasion of peace officers paraphernalia - cutting bottoms of aluminum cans, burn marks on foil, books on drugs, paper bindles, plastic baggies - sounds - what you hear as you approach the scene - what is being said in the community - slurred , excited, or altered speech - smell - specific scents of drugs - cover-up scents - touch - U.S. supreme court has stated that police may seize nonthreatening contraband detected though sense of touch during a protective pat down so long as the search stays within the bounds marked by Terry v. Ohio List the most utilized methods of manufacturing methamphetamine in Ohio. - correct answer - One pot/shake-n-bake method - red phosphorous method - birch reduction method - conversion lab Describe general indicators of methamphetamine labs - correct answer - containers with layers of both solids and liquids - containers with multiple layers of liquids - containers with tubes or hoses attached Identify what law enforcement officers are responsible for when it comes to clandestine laboratories. - correct answer - identifying what appears to be the components of clandestine lab - they are not responsible for identification of clandestine labs Recognize hazards common at all clandestine labs - correct answer • Flammable atmospheres. • Strong concentrated acids. • Ignition sources. • Toxic and poisonous gases. • Dangerous individuals. Recognize simple protocol for first responders at possible clandestine laboratories - correct answer - do not touch anything - do not sniff anything - do not open anything - follow agency policy/procedure Describe the methods of Lineup - correct answer - show up - a policy procedure in which a suspect is shown singly to a witness for identification, rather than part of a lineup - Photo lineup - identification procedure in which an array of photographs in which the suspect and other people not involved in the crime are displayed to an eyewitness for the purpose of determining whether the eyewitness can identify the suspect as the perpetrator of the offense - live Lineup - identification procedure in which a group of persons not suspected of the offense and including the suspect of the offense are displayed to an eyewitness for the purpose of determining whether the eyewitness can identify the suspect as the perpetrator of the offense Recognize legal gambling in Ohio - correct answer Licensed casino games which are regulated by the Ohio Casino Control Commission (OCCC) Games regulated by the Ohio Lottery Commission (OLC) Instant lottery tickets Keno Video Lottery Terminals (VLT) located at racinos Licensed bingo which is regulated by the Ohio Attorney General (OAG) Licensed horse racing which is regulated by the Ohio State Racing Commission Recognize illegal gambling in Ohio. - correct answer Any gambling that is required to be licensed or regulated by the state that is being conducted without that license or regulation Describe the methods of surveillance - correct answer - Mobile - Foot Surveillance - Mobile - Vehicle Surveillance - Fixed/ Stationary Surveillance differentiate between and interview and an interrogation - correct answer - interview - the questioning of a victim, witness, or other person with information related to an incident or a case - interrogation - the formal, systematic, or intensive questioning by the police of a person arrested or suspected of committing a crime Explain how to establish rapport with a subject. - correct answer - Identify the purpose of the interview - Offer the subject the ability to choose the time of the interview - Ask introductory/ non- threatening questions Identify the purposes of interrogation - correct answer To obtain information relevant to an investigation To discover additional evidence relevant to an investigation or establish innocence To obtain accurate and truthful information which may or may not lead to a confession or an admission Recognize factors to consider in determining if an individual is in custody - correct answer - the location of the interrogation - the number of officers present - the attitude of the officers toward the person being questioned - the stage of the investigation - whether or not the suspect is free to leave Explain the Miranda warning - correct answer • The suspect has the right to remain silent • If the suspect gives up the right to remain silent, anything the suspect says can be used in a court of law against him or her • The suspect has the right to speak to an attorney and have an attorney present when being questioned by the police • If the suspect cannot afford one, an attorney will be appointed to represent the suspect before questioning begins Under what two conditions is an officer required to read the miranda warning to a suspect - correct answer - the suspect is in custody AND - the suspect is being questioned/interrogated Recognize the standard against which a waiver will be judged when an accused waives his/her Miranda rights. - correct answer - the warning and waiver have been given and that the statements were made knowingly, voluntarily, and intelligently Explain the fruits of the poisonous tree. - correct answer (i.e., evidence that is obtained illegally) If a confession is derived immediately from an unlawful arrest or illegal search, the confession is tainted and it may not be used against a suspect Recognize when police can further question a suspect who has previously invoked miranda rights - correct answer - The officer again advises the suspect of the Miranda rights and the suspect waives the rights AND - the suspect expressly initiates the contact with the officer Differentiate between Eustress and Distress - correct answer - Eustress (i.e., good stress) -Stress that has a positive motivating force that may lead to an increase in health and performance -Examples are deadlines, competition, and specialized training opportunities -From a positive standpoint, eustress is experienced as increased mental alertness and focus -Positive stress tends to be short-lived -After the challenge is met, the body returns to its normal state -This allows the body to rest, recuperate, and re-energize to meet the next challenge - Distress (i.e., bad stress) -Negative, dysfunctional force that may lead to disease and the deterioration of health -Generally refers to job pressures and demands that trigger negative behaviors (e.g., losing your temper, yelling, excessive force, and/or drug/alcohol abuse) -Negative stressors have the potential to -Cause anxiety or concern -Decrease overall performance -May be short or long term -Running from crisis to crisis with little time to rest and recover in between places the sufferer in a constant state of high readiness Explain the concept and indicators of cumulative stress - correct answer Cumulative stress - stress arousal that slowly builds up over time and may lead to the erosion of coping mechanisms or to a state of mental exhaustion - it is a product of multiple stress events over a period of time and cannot be avoided - you may be able to manage cumulative stress unlike Eustress, Distress, or critical incident stress - Sources can be both personal and professional Identify possible stress reactions during a life threatening encounter - correct answer - Fight - Flight - Freeze Describe individual approaches to stress management. - correct answer - manage responsibility - practice self-awareness - have a balanced lifestyle - apply stress reduction techniques - take time for life - humor Identify when to seek assistance - correct answer - Individual coping skills are not working - Your friends or family notice dysfunctional emotional responses or behavior - When you don't "feel like yourself" (e.g., disorientation, depression) - Suicidal or homicidal thoughts or plans Define explosive device - correct answer - Any device designed or specifically adapted to cause physical harm to persons or property by means of an explosion AND - Consisting of an explosive substance of agency and a means to detonate it. - Includes, bomb, any explosive demolition device, any blasting cap or detonator containing an explosive charge AND - Any pressure vessel that has been knowingly tampered with or arranged so as to explode. Define incendiary device - correct answer - Any fire bomb and any device designed or specifically adapted to cause physical harm to persons or property by means of fire and - Consisting of an incendiary substance of agency and a means to ignite it. Identify the critical components of an IED (PIES-C) - correct answer Power source - can be electrical, mechanical, or chemical Initiator - most initiators are highly sensitive to heat, shock, and friction. The initiator is required to provide the additional energy needed to start a chain reaction within an explosive Explosive main charge - the part of the IED that causes most of the damage and injuries by creating the blast pressure which creates fragmentation Switch - provides an on/off feature that is necessary in an electric circuit to maintain control of the power applied to an initiator. Switches generally perform the function of firing or arming a device Container - used to conceal, transport, and to increase lethality Explain the explosive effects of an IED - correct answer - Thermal -- High explosive - short durations -- Low explosive - long durations -- Powdered aluminum or magnesium may be used to increase effect - Blast - Positive phase - pushes out - Negative phase - sucks back into vacuum - Fragmentation - Primary - Container, munitions case, or shrapnel / thousands - Secondary - primary fragments and debris from blast area. / moves hundreds of FPS Describe common methods used to initiate an IED - correct answer - Time Fired - Victim Operated - Command Initiated Describe the three types of bomb search teams - correct answer - Occupant team - most common, rapid search, familiar with area, must be warned of dangers and participation is voluntary - Supervisory Team - fast approach and least disruptive to area, covert, may not be familiar with area, supervisors not general staff... - Trained Team - personnel trained in bomb search techniques, best if from target facility, most thorough, used to augment police or fire. Elements of Terrorism - correct answer - Commit a specified offense with purpose to... - Intimidate or coerce a civilian population, or - Influence the policy of any government by intimidation or coercion, or - Affect the conduct of any government by the specified offense Common beliefs among sovereign citizen extremists - correct answer - Believe the government has no authority over individuals and they are not bound to statutory law - They may call themselves "freemen" or "common law citizens" Since they believe they are sovereign, some believe their crimes and threats to be legal actions - Many sovereign citizens reject all forms of government licensing (e.g., driver licenses, vehicle registration) and stop paying taxes Indicators an officer could be encountering a sovereign citizen extremists - correct answer - a claim to be a sovereign citizen is not a crime however it is known that those encounters can be extremely dangerous - take extra precaution - traffic stops are the most common places to run into sovereign citizens and indicators are - unusual license plate - unusual behavior during the stop - unusual conversations or statements Property rights beliefs commonly held by many sovereign citizens - correct answer - they can do what they please with their land - their property is an embassy - their property and vehicles are not subject to search by police and may post warnings stating such - often refuse to permit public officials and others on their property Indicators and Behaviors of Potential Criminal or Noncriminal Activities Requiring Additional Information During Investigation - correct answer - eliciting information - testing or probing of security - recruiting/financing - Photography - observation/surveillance Indicators and behaviors of defined criminal activity and potential terrorism nexus activity - correct answer - Breach/attempted intrusion - misrepresentation - theft/loss/diversion - sabotage/tampering/vandalism - cyberattack - expressed or implied threat - aviation activity Aggravated Vehicular Homicide - correct answer No person while operating or participating in the operation of a motor vehicle, motorcycle, snowmobile, locomotive, watercraft, or aircraft shall... - culpable mental state - Strict Liability - Act - Cause the death of another or the unlawful termination of another's pregnancy - condition - as the proximate result of committing a violation of an OVI Assault - correct answer culpable mental state: Knowingly - Act - Cause or attempt to cause physical harm to another or another's unborn Gross Sexual Imposition - correct answer ORC 2907.05 (F3-F4) (A) No person shall have sexual contact with another, not the spouse of the offender; cause another, not the spouse of the offender, to have sexual contact with the offender; or cause two or more other persons to have sexual contact when any of the following applies: (1) The offender purposely compels the other person, or one of the other persons, to submit by force or threat of force. (2) For the purpose of preventing resistance, the offender substantially impairs the judgment or control of the other person or of one of the other persons by administering any drug, intoxicant, or controlled substance to the other person surreptitiously or by force, threat of force, or deception. (3) The offender knows that the judgment or control of the other person or of one of the other persons is substantially impaired as a result of the influence of any drug or intoxicant administered to the other person with the other person's consent for the purpose of any kind of medical or dental examination, treatment, or surgery. (4) The other person, or one of the other persons, is less than thirteen years of age, whether or not the offender knows the age of that person. (5) The ability of the other person to resist or consent or the ability of one of the other persons to resist or consent is substantially impaired because of a mental or physical condition or because of advanced age, and the offender knows or has reasonable cause to believe that the ability to resist or consent of the other person or of one of the other persons is substantially impaired because of a mental or physical condition or because of advanced age. (B) No person shall knowingly touch the genitalia of another, when the touching is not through clothing, the other person is less than twelve years of age, whether or not the offender knows the age Breaking and Entering - correct answer - Culpable Mental state - Purposely - Act - Trespass in an unoccupied structure