BARKLEY POST TEST EXAM 2023/2024
UPDATE ACTUAL EXAM WITH
QUESTIONS AND VERIED ANSWERS
ALREADY GRADED A+
A 54-year-old former professional athlete is being screened for hypertension, a condition which runs in
his family. Which of the following findings is not consistent with a diagnosis of hypertension?
A. Epistaxis
B. A suboccipital headache
C. Blurred vision
D. An S3 heart sound
D. An S4 heart sound, not an S3 heart sound, is a finding of hypertension. A suboccipital headache,
blurred vision, and epistaxis are all findings indicative of hypertension.
A deficiency of which of the following blood components causes pernicious anemia?
A. Clotting factor III
B. Factor VII
C. Prothrombin
d. Intrinsic factor
A deficiency of intrinsic factor interferes with the body's ability to absorb vitamin B12, thereby causing
pernicious anemia. Prothrombin and clotting factor II are both names for the same vitamin K-dependent
proenzyme which assists in blood coagulation cascade. A lack of sufficient prothrombin causes
hypoprothrombinemia, not pernicious anemia. Hemophilia, not pernicious anemia, is caused by a
genetic condition expressed by the deficiency of factor VII.
In addition to infection by Helicobacter pylori, peptic ulcers may also arise from regular use of certain
medications and other conditions. In which of the following populations of patients is prophylactic
therapy for gastric ulcers not indicated?
A. Patients taking tricyclic antidepressants long term
,B. Patients taking moderate nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs long term
C. Patients taking glucocorticoids long term
D. Patients taking aspirin long term
The use of tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) has not been reported to induce ulcers. TCAs may actually be
used as treatment for ulcers in certain patients. Glucocorticoids, NSAIDs, and aspirin can induce ulcers in
patients who take these medications long term.
Monty, a 60-year-old male, falls from a stepladder while removing a homet's nest from his front porch.
You perform an x-ray of his right femur and you discover a hairline fracture which should heal on its
own. You are more concerned about another finding: calcification along both of Monty's femoral
arteries. Monty's legs are also cool to the touch, and he complains of claudication during exercise. When
you ask him about any other medications he may be taking. he indicates he has been using nicotine
patches to help him "finally quit smoking." Of the following, which is the least likely treatment for
Monty's most likely condition?
A. Balloon angioplasty
B. Pentoxifylline (Trental)
C. Aspirin plus warfarin
D. Cilostazol (Pletal)
C. The patient's claudication, calcification of the femoral arteries, and cool-to-the-touch skin are all
symptoms typical of peripheral artery disease (PAD), which is not treated with a combination of aspirin
and warfarin. Although aspirin may be used as an antiplatelet therapy for PAD, its combination with
warfarin is widely contraindicated, together, aspirin and warfarin may significantly increase the patient's
risk of a hemorrhagic stroke Pentoxifylline is indicated for patients with obstructive arteriopathies such
as PAD Pentoxifylline improves blood flow by decreasing viscosity through the eased deformability of
red blood cells. Cilostazol, like pentoxifylline, is prescribed to treat the symptoms of intermittent
claudication. In reaction to various stimuli, including stress,
Which of the following overdoses would the nurse practitioner expect to present with more sedative
signs and symptoms as opposed to an elevated tachycardic presentation?
A.Crack
B.Cocaine
C.Amphetamines
, D.Opioids
D. Of the choices, opioids are the only narcotic that would present with sedative signs. Amphetamines,
cocaine, and crack are all stimulants, and overdoses of these substances may present with increased
blood pressure, numbness, or a seizure.
Which of the following is not a major cause of death of adults in their 30s?
A. Congenital malformations
B. Cancer
C. Suicide
D. Unintentional injuries
A. Congenital malformations are a leading cause of death of children aged 1-9 years, but not adults in
their 30s. The leading causes of death for adults aged 25-44 years are unintentional injuries, cancer,
suicide, heart disease, and homicide.
When should a female patient first receive a cytology with HPV co-test?
A. At age 25 years
B. At age 29 years
C. At age 30 years
D. At age 21 years
C. According to multiple health care bodies, women should first receive a cytology with HPV co-test at
age 30 years; these tests should be repeated every 5 years until 65 years of age. A conventional or
liquid-based cytology should be administered every 3 21 to 29 years of age. Annual chlamydia
screenings are recommended for sexually years from active women younger than 25 years of age and
may be administered alongside cervical cancer screenings.
A patient recently diagnosed with tuberculosis (TB) is started on a four-drug regimen, consisting of
isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. If the patient's TB isolate proves to be fully
susceptible, which drug should be discontinued first?
A. Ethambutol
B. Pyrazinamide
C. Isoniazid
D. Rifampin
A. Ethambutol should be discontinued early into treatment of tuberculosis (TB) if the patient's TB isolate
turns out to be susceptible to drug therapy. Pyrazinamide is traditionally discontinued after 2 months of
treatment, whereas rifampin and isoniazid are used throughout all 6 months of standard therapy.
UPDATE ACTUAL EXAM WITH
QUESTIONS AND VERIED ANSWERS
ALREADY GRADED A+
A 54-year-old former professional athlete is being screened for hypertension, a condition which runs in
his family. Which of the following findings is not consistent with a diagnosis of hypertension?
A. Epistaxis
B. A suboccipital headache
C. Blurred vision
D. An S3 heart sound
D. An S4 heart sound, not an S3 heart sound, is a finding of hypertension. A suboccipital headache,
blurred vision, and epistaxis are all findings indicative of hypertension.
A deficiency of which of the following blood components causes pernicious anemia?
A. Clotting factor III
B. Factor VII
C. Prothrombin
d. Intrinsic factor
A deficiency of intrinsic factor interferes with the body's ability to absorb vitamin B12, thereby causing
pernicious anemia. Prothrombin and clotting factor II are both names for the same vitamin K-dependent
proenzyme which assists in blood coagulation cascade. A lack of sufficient prothrombin causes
hypoprothrombinemia, not pernicious anemia. Hemophilia, not pernicious anemia, is caused by a
genetic condition expressed by the deficiency of factor VII.
In addition to infection by Helicobacter pylori, peptic ulcers may also arise from regular use of certain
medications and other conditions. In which of the following populations of patients is prophylactic
therapy for gastric ulcers not indicated?
A. Patients taking tricyclic antidepressants long term
,B. Patients taking moderate nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs long term
C. Patients taking glucocorticoids long term
D. Patients taking aspirin long term
The use of tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) has not been reported to induce ulcers. TCAs may actually be
used as treatment for ulcers in certain patients. Glucocorticoids, NSAIDs, and aspirin can induce ulcers in
patients who take these medications long term.
Monty, a 60-year-old male, falls from a stepladder while removing a homet's nest from his front porch.
You perform an x-ray of his right femur and you discover a hairline fracture which should heal on its
own. You are more concerned about another finding: calcification along both of Monty's femoral
arteries. Monty's legs are also cool to the touch, and he complains of claudication during exercise. When
you ask him about any other medications he may be taking. he indicates he has been using nicotine
patches to help him "finally quit smoking." Of the following, which is the least likely treatment for
Monty's most likely condition?
A. Balloon angioplasty
B. Pentoxifylline (Trental)
C. Aspirin plus warfarin
D. Cilostazol (Pletal)
C. The patient's claudication, calcification of the femoral arteries, and cool-to-the-touch skin are all
symptoms typical of peripheral artery disease (PAD), which is not treated with a combination of aspirin
and warfarin. Although aspirin may be used as an antiplatelet therapy for PAD, its combination with
warfarin is widely contraindicated, together, aspirin and warfarin may significantly increase the patient's
risk of a hemorrhagic stroke Pentoxifylline is indicated for patients with obstructive arteriopathies such
as PAD Pentoxifylline improves blood flow by decreasing viscosity through the eased deformability of
red blood cells. Cilostazol, like pentoxifylline, is prescribed to treat the symptoms of intermittent
claudication. In reaction to various stimuli, including stress,
Which of the following overdoses would the nurse practitioner expect to present with more sedative
signs and symptoms as opposed to an elevated tachycardic presentation?
A.Crack
B.Cocaine
C.Amphetamines
, D.Opioids
D. Of the choices, opioids are the only narcotic that would present with sedative signs. Amphetamines,
cocaine, and crack are all stimulants, and overdoses of these substances may present with increased
blood pressure, numbness, or a seizure.
Which of the following is not a major cause of death of adults in their 30s?
A. Congenital malformations
B. Cancer
C. Suicide
D. Unintentional injuries
A. Congenital malformations are a leading cause of death of children aged 1-9 years, but not adults in
their 30s. The leading causes of death for adults aged 25-44 years are unintentional injuries, cancer,
suicide, heart disease, and homicide.
When should a female patient first receive a cytology with HPV co-test?
A. At age 25 years
B. At age 29 years
C. At age 30 years
D. At age 21 years
C. According to multiple health care bodies, women should first receive a cytology with HPV co-test at
age 30 years; these tests should be repeated every 5 years until 65 years of age. A conventional or
liquid-based cytology should be administered every 3 21 to 29 years of age. Annual chlamydia
screenings are recommended for sexually years from active women younger than 25 years of age and
may be administered alongside cervical cancer screenings.
A patient recently diagnosed with tuberculosis (TB) is started on a four-drug regimen, consisting of
isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. If the patient's TB isolate proves to be fully
susceptible, which drug should be discontinued first?
A. Ethambutol
B. Pyrazinamide
C. Isoniazid
D. Rifampin
A. Ethambutol should be discontinued early into treatment of tuberculosis (TB) if the patient's TB isolate
turns out to be susceptible to drug therapy. Pyrazinamide is traditionally discontinued after 2 months of
treatment, whereas rifampin and isoniazid are used throughout all 6 months of standard therapy.
