SAFe AGILE Practitioner 6.0 Exam questions & Answers – 2024 Update

SAFe AGILE Practitioner 6.0 Exam questions & Answers – 2024 Update SAFe AGILE Practitioner 6.0 Exam questions & Answers – 2024 Update 1. What are two reasons Agile development is more beneficial than waterfall development? (Choose two.) a. It allows businesses to deliver value to the market more quickly b. It relies on external provider dependencies c. It requires phase-gate approvals to ensure that everyone is moving together d. It allows management to track project progress based on steering committees and metrics e. It increases productivity and employee engagement 2. What are the SAFe Core Values? a. Code Quality, Fast Feedback, Alignment, Trust b. Commitment, Competency, Collocation, Culture c. People and Culture, Transparency, Collaboration, Responding to Change d. Built-in Quality, Program Execution, Alignment, Transparency 3. What are the three levels of the Scaled Agile Framework? a. Essential, Large Solution, Portfolio b. Epic, Capability, Feature c. Value Stream, Program, Team d. Framework, Delivery, Iteration 4. Which factor helps unlock the intrinsic motivation of knowledge workers? a. Autonomy b. Pay-for-performance c. Team performance incentives d. Parallel development 5. What is the goal of the SAFe House of Lean model? a. Value b. Innovation c. Relentless Improvement d. Flow 6. How does relentless improvement support value in the SAFe House of Lean? a. It uses informed decision-making through fast feedback b. It optimizes the whole c. It allows teams to pivot without mercy or guilt d. It builds long-term partnerships based on trust 7. What is one of the typical Kanban classes of service for Agile teams? a. Funnel b. Fixed-date c. Review d. Accepted 8. What is the purpose of the Iteration review? a. To identify where there is too much work in the system and where the teams are being overloaded b. To measure the team's progress by showing working Stories to the stakeholders and getting feedback from them c. To show the backlog items and work on possible Solutions for the backlog items d. To serve as a forecasting meeting where the work is estimated for the Program Increments 9. What is the role of the Scrum Master? a. To act as a servant leader who helps teams self-organize, self-manage, and deliver using effective Agile practices b. To coordinate Portfolio Epics through the Portfolio Kanban system c. To be a stakeholder who has the primary business and technical responsibility for fitness for use d. To facilitate Agile Release Train processes and Solution Train execution 10. Why do Lean-Agile leaders try to connect the silos of business, system engineering, hardware, software, test, and quality assurance? a. To align around value b. To allow friction between the teams c. To optimize vertical communication d. To enforce organizational boundaries between functions 11. When should a component team be used? a. To gain the fastest velocity with well defined interfaces b. To obtain high reuse and technical specialization with a focus on nonfunctional requirements c. To develop T-shaped skills together with Continuous Integration d. To create each replaceable component with minimized dependencies 12. Which two statements describe the responsibilities of the Product Owner? (Choose two.) a. To coach the team b. To ensure the team follows Agile principles and practices c. To own and manage the Team Backlog d. To be a single voice for the Customer and stakeholders e. To protect the team from external forces 13. Which responsibility belongs to the Product Owner in the team? a. To facilitate team meetings and drive Agile behavior b. To foster adoption of Agile technical practices c. To foster normalized estimating within the team d. To sequence backlog items to program priorities, events, and dependencies 14. What is the recommended size of an Agile Team? a. 8 - 12 people b. 3 - 5 people c. 10 - 15 people d. 5 - 11 people 15. Agile Release Train aligns teams to a common mission using a single vision and what else? a. Program Backlog 16. Which two views does the Iteration review provide into the program? (Choose two.) a. How the team is increasing empowerment b. How the team did on the Iteration c. How the team is doing on the Program Increment d. How the team is demonstrating transparency of decision-making e. How the team is responding to the stakeholders 17. An Agile Team collects the Iteration Metrics they have agreed upon during which part of the team retrospective? a. During the Features agreement retrospective b. During the qualitative part of the team retrospective c. During the time and materials retrospective d. During the quantitative part of the team retrospective 18. Which statement is true about the PI Planning event? a. It involves Product Management and Product Owners on the first day and the rest of the teams on the second day b. It involves everyone in the program over a two-day period c. It involves program Portfolio Management to prioritize the Stories presented by teams during the final plan review d. It involves only the team members who are most qualified to estimate the work 19. Which activity is key to successfully implementing the Scaled Agile Framework? a. Use the Innovation and Planning Iteration instead of the PI Planning process b. Replace the PI Planning process with the Inspect and Adapt workshop when possible c. Use a cadence-based PI Planning process d. Remove blocks such as portfolio estimation 20. What is an example of a program event? a. Scrum of scrums b. Daily stand-up c. Innovation and Planning d. Iteration review 21. What visibility should Scrum Masters provide during the Agile Release Train Sync? a. Visibility into progress and impediments b. Visibility into system Solution Intent c. Visibility into single source design decisions d. Visibility into collaboration deployment 22. Iteration planning, Iteration review, and backlog refinement are examples of which type of event? a. Team event 23. The Inspect and Adapt event always starts with which activity? a. Agreement on the problems to solve b. Quantitative measurement c. The PI System Demo d. Retrospective and Problem Solving Workshop 24. Which practices are demonstrated during the Inspect and Adapt event? a. Reflect, problem solve, and identify improvement actions b. Move forward, analyze future Stories, integrate, and iterate c. New start, job sequence, funnel, and enable d. Forward focus, develop, cross-domain plan, and expedite execution 25. If the PI System Demo shows the current state of the Solution, then who is this demo intended for? a. The Business Owners b. The Product Owner c. The Scrum Masters d. The Agile Team 26. What is the role of the Release Train Engineer? a. To serve as the Scrum Master for the Agile Release Train b. To coach teams to improve their results c. To serve as the content authority at the Program Level d. To ensure the technical integrity of all development in the Agile Release Train 27. During Iteration execution, a team's velocity tends to be most affected by what? a. Productivity changes, team location, and innovation measures b. Changing financial planners, a new Scrum Master, and new testers c. Changing team size, team makeup, and technical context d. Product Owner changes, changing estimations, and new Features 28. Which statement describes one element of the CALMR approach to DevOps? a. Build cross-functional Agile Release Trains around the flow of value to the Customer b. Keep everything under version control c. Decentralize decision making d. Establish a work environment of shared responsibility 29. What is an example of a modified Fibonacci sequence? a. ...1, 1, 3, 5, 5... b. ...5, 8, 13, 21, 34... c. ...5, 8, 13, 20, 40... d. ... 2, 4, 5, 9, 11... 30. What is critical to successfully implementing quality in a Lean-Agile environment? a. Making quality everyone's responsibility b. A phased-gate rollout c. Separation of Dev and Ops d. Component teams 31. Why is the modified Fibonacci sequence used when estimating? a. It results in greater precision b. It can be used to predict unit test coverage c. It reflects the uncertainty in estimating larger items d. It serves as a way to estimate large ranges 32. Which three questions should each team member answer during the daily stand-up? (Choose three.) a. How I am contributing to an environment of continuous change? b. How am I splitting the Solutions into Capabilities and Enablers? c. How am I optimizing the full Solution? d. What will I do today to advance the Iteration goals? e. Are there any impediments that will prevent the team from meeting the Iteration goals? f. What did I do yesterday to advance the Iteration goals? 33. How can a technical exploration Enabler be demonstrated? a. Show the knowledge gained by the exploration b. Demonstrate working systems in the production environment c. Exploration Enablers do not need to be demonstrated d. Show the acceptance tests written for the exploration 34. What is the role of the System Architect/Engineer? a. To define the design for the system b. To manage dependencies c. To implement continuous improvement methods d. To guide the teams and support the Architectural Runway 35. Which statement is true about work in process (WIP) limits? a. Higher WIP limits result in lower utilization b. Lower WIP limits improve flow c. Lower WIP limits result in fewer Stories being completed d. Higher WIP limits provide richer feedback 36. James is a Product Owner. It is day seven of the Iteration and his team tells him that they may miss their Iteration commitment. What should James do? a. Ensure the Iteration backlog is accurately prioritized b. Agree to add a person from the System Team to complete the work c. Support adding an Innovation and Planning Iteration directly after the current Iteration d. Support splitting a Story into a coding story and a testing story, and then moving the testing story into the next Iteration 37. What replaces detailed requirements documents? a. Pair work b. Stories c. Unit tests d. Task boards 38. A cumulative flow diagram focuses on which curves? a. Arrival curve ("to-do") and departure curve ("done") b. Implementation curve ("movement") and departure curve ("done") c. Arrival curve ("to do") and evolution curve ("change") d. Backlog curve ("work") and departure curve ("done") 39. The "3 Cs" is a popular guideline for writing user stories. What does each of the three Cs represent? (Choose three.) a. Conversation b. Concept c. Conform d. Clarification e. Card f. Confirmation 40. Iteration planning, Iteration review, and backlog refinement are examples of which type of event? a. Program event b. Team event c. PI event d. Sync event 41. Which statement reflects one of the steps for setting initial velocity? a. Identify work on technical infrastructure, tooling, and other systemic impediments b. The team members assess their availability, acknowledging time off and other potential duties c. Maintenance tasks do not need to be included in velocity; maintenance tasks fall outside this scope d. Determining velocity is a new function in each Iteration; previous Iterations should not be transferred to a new Iteration 42. Which statement describes a cadence-based PI Planning event? a. As many team members as possible should attend remotely to reduce travel costs b. It is very important and should be postponed until all participants can attend c. It is an all-hands, two-day event with the goal to create alignment d. It is not a required event but tasks move forward at higher velocity when the meeting occurs 43. Which statement is true about Iteration planning for Kanban teams? a. Kanban teams do not commit to service level agreements b. Kanban teams find high value in trying to plan the Iteration in detail c. Kanban teams publish Iteration goals d. Kanban teams estimate their velocity 44. Quality is first and foremost a function of what in a Lean-Agile concept? a. Culture of shared responsibility b. Deployment on demand c. Preserving options d. Empowered Solution authority 45. What is the benefit of separating release elements from the Solution? a. It allows the release of different Solution elements at different times b. It allows the Agile Release Train to demo value every two weeks c. It allows the Systems Team to integrate with ease d. It allows Agile Teams to launch untested Features 46. What is typically included in the definition of done for the team increment? a. Customer documentation is ready b. Regression testing is done c. Stories are accepted by the Product Owner d. Stories are accepted by Product Management 47. Who or which group is responsible for providing architectural guidance to the Agile Release Train? a. Product Management b. System Team c. Enterprise Architect d. System Architect 48. Why is transparency so important in SAFe? a. Lean works when an organization is transparent yet finds a way to monitor access to information b. To enable continuous delivery of value c. Moderate improvements are achieved with ongoing transparency d. Transparency creates trust, and trust is required for risk-taking 49. When are the tests written in a Test-driven Development environment? a. While creating the Product Requirements document b. Just before deployment ("Just in Time") c. While the code is being written d. Before the code is written 50. What is an Iteration Retrospective? a. It is used by Agile teams to reflect on the timebox just completed and to develop new ideas to improve the process b. It is used to build the context that allows the Agile Release Trains and suppliers to create their plans during the Program Increment c. It requires the Scrum Masters to gather ideas and possible solutions by reviewing past Program Increments d. It gathers the stakeholders together to review past case studies from other companies 51. What is something an Agile Team would develop? a. Firmware b. Workflow steps c. Program Increment (PI) Objectives d. Work breakdown structures 52. How do Agile Teams strive to continuously integrate assets? a. Integrate vertically sliced user stories b. Leave as much as possible to the System Team c. Avoid integrating hardware branches d. Seek to physically branch software 53. For the past week Lee has been late to the Daily Stand-up. What is the Scrum Master's best course of action? a. Change the time of the Daily Stand-up until all participants can meet each day b. Escalate the issue to Lee's functional manager and explain what is happening c. Update the working agreements to clearly state the importance of the Daily Stand- up, and why the team is less effective if she misses d. In a private conversation, work with Lee to identify a solution and explain why her presence is so necessary for success 54. The four levels of the Scaled Agile Framework Definition of Done include which elements? a. Iteration Review, System Increment, Solution Demo, Release b. Team Review, Inspect and Adapt, Solution Demo, System Demo c. Team Increment, System Increment, Solution Increment, Release d. Team Retrospective, System Demo, Solution Increment, Review 55. What is an important outcome of Inspect and Adapt? a. Identify improvement items for the next PI b. Analyze and approve Program Epics c. Identify all out-of-scope work d. Agree on what will be committed to in the next PI