FFS 3rd Edition - IFSTA Essentials Practice Test Bank, Complete Test Bank with Questions and Answers

FFS 3rd Edition - IFSTA Essentials Practice Test Bank, Complete Test Bank with Questions and Answers Answers are on the last pages 1. Which of the following is an example of a fine fuel? A) Grass B) Branch C) Root D) Stick 2. What is a fire fighter's initial objective during a confined-space incident? A) Make contact with the victim B) Call for needed resources C) Secure the scene D) Stabilize the situation 3. All of the following are common topics of focus in public fire safety education programs EXCEPT . A) bicycle safety B) wildland fire prevention C) fall prevention D) dorm living 4. How do heated gases move in a room? A) They spread laterally to the walls and then begin to rise B) They seek the lowest point and settle there C) They rise to the ceiling and spread outward D) They disperse evenly throughout the entire volume of the room 5. Why should fire fighters understand the basic principles of fire investigation? A) They may be called to serve as cause investigators B) It will help them to observe and preserve evidence C) They may have to detain or question suspects or witnesses D) An understanding of fire cause aids in fire suppression 6. What does the “R” stand for in “RIC”? A) Rapid B) Responder C) Response D) Rescue 7. Which action should be avoided when performing horizontal ventilation? A) Use on a windy day B) Initiating a fire attack prior to ventilation C) Opening upward windows first D) Use of fans or blowers 8. What is the voltage of the electrical system on most conventional vehicles? A) 24 volts B) 36 volts C) 12 volts D) 6 volts 9. In a lay, the hose is laid out from the fire to the hydrant. A) hydrant B) reverse C) relay D) defensive 10. What is the term for the weather-resistant surface of a roof? A) Covering B) Tar paper C) Decking D) Skin 11. At a technical rescue incident, if you are given an assignment you do not fully understand, what should you do? A) Turn down the assignment B) Modify the assignment C) Ask for clarification D) Perform the assignment to the best of your ability 12. What is the minimum flow from a master stream device? A) 500 gpm (1900 lpm) B) 750 gpm (2800 lpm) C) 450 gpm (1700 lpm) D) 350 gpm (1325 lpm) 13. Which control zone contains the command post? A) Cold zone B) Command zone C) Warm zone D) Support zone 14. Which fiber is commonly used in water rescue rope? A) Polypropylene B) Polyester C) Spectra D) Olefin 15. Which of the following is a confinement tactic? A) Stabilizing a container B) Patching a leak C) Plugging a leak D) Damming 16. At least one member of every interior firefighting team should be equipped with a . A) guide rope B) portable radio C) thermal imager D) spare SCBA cylinder 17. What is the term for attempts to keep hazardous materials at a site or within the immediate area of the release? A) Retention B) Containment C) Stabilization D) Confinement 18. Which resource is of particular value at a hazardous materials incident? A) FEMA field representatives B) Heavy equipment operators C) Technical specialists D) American Red Cross 19. Which of the following is one of the 16 Firefighter Life Safety Initiatives? A) Develop and promote national standards for rapid intervention team operations B) Promote the establishment of an annual Fire Fighter Safety Stand Down C) Ensure a mandatory rest period following full consumption of a single SCBA cylinder D) Utilize technology wherever it can produce higher levels of safety and health 20. What is the second priority in basic fire-ground objectives? A) Confinement B) Salvage C) Exposure protection D) Extinguishment 21. What should be used to clean fire hoses? A) TSP (trisodium phosphate) B) A dilute bleach solution C) Class A foam D) Mild detergent 22. A vehicle fueled by CNG or LPG is fully involved in fire. Which of the following should be used to fight the fire? A) Unmanned master stream B) 2½" (65-mm) hose stream C) Carbon dioxide D) 1¾" (45-mm) hose stream 23. Which step in the door displacement process comes first? A) Shear the latch pin with hydraulic shears B) Use a pry bar to create an insertion point for the spreaders C) Use the point of a Halligan tool to displace the lock cylinder D) Use the spreaders to pinch the door skin 24. What is the last part of a windshield that should be cut? A) The side B) The top C) The most accessible part D) The bottom 25. Which of the following is one of the three basic types of railcar configurations that fire fighters should be able to recognize? A) Compressed gas B) Special use C) Hazardous waste D) Intermodal 26. What is the attack plan based upon at a fire? A) Possibilities B) Worst-case scenarios C) Facts D) Probabilities 27. Which sound is a common indication that the tongue of an unconscious victim is obstructing the airway? A) Gurgling B) Snoring C) Whistling D) Wheezing 28. Which radio terminology is used to report a fire fighter in trouble and requiring immediate assistance? A) “Fire fighter requesting assistance” B) “Mayday” C) “Emergency traffic” D) “Signal 102” 29. What agency establishes recommended exposure levels (RELs) for chemicals? A) OSHA B) NIOSH C) FEMA D) EPA 30. What is the minimum level of training necessary to provide care to a victim in an ambulance? A) Paramedic B) First responder C) EMT D) EMR 31. Which system delivers water from to fire hose outlets on each floor in a high-rise building? A) Water thief B) Riser C) Standpipe D) Dry pipe 32. Which is the best reference to use for a hazardous materials transportation vehicle identified by a placard? A) EPA spill management guide B) Chemical Abstract Service registry C) DOT Index of Registered Chemicals D) Emergency Response Guidebook 33. What is used to prevent the dash from moving back after it has been displaced? A) Spreaders B) Cribbing C) Hydraulic ram D) Jack 34. When is it appropriate to use one's senses to detect the presence of a hazardous material? A) If the released material has been identified B) If the release is small C) If the material has a distinct odor D) If it can be done without resulting in exposure to the material 35. When is an indirect attack indicated? A) When flashover is likely B) When the structure is badly weakened C) When exposures are immediately threatened D) With an incipient fire 36. What does smoke puffing in and out of a structure indicate? A) Backdraft conditions B) Growth-phase fire C) Imminent flashover D) Impending structural collapse 37. Most fires are caused by . A) unknown mechanisms B) uncontrollable or unpredictable events C) natural events D) preventable conditions and behaviors 38. To batch mix 3 percent foam into a 500-gallon (1893-liter) water tank, how much foam concentrate should be added to the tank? A) 15 gal (57 L) B) 9 gal (34 L) C) 3 gal (11.35 L) D) 5 gal (19 L) 39. What is the usual penalty for a first-time fire code violation? A) Citation B) Verbal or written warning C) Closure of business until the condition is corrected D) Mandatory on-the-spot correction 40. What is the primary role of a fire alarm system? A) Send a signal to an alarm monitoring service B) Provide occupants with a means of summoning help C) Send a signal to the fire department D) Alert occupants to a hazard 41. What should fire fighters do with their PPE in rehabilitation? A) Remove helmets, hoods, and gloves only B) Keep it on C) Remove it D) Keep it on in cold or wet weather 42. Which term means the spread of fire from one floor to another via exterior windows? A) Leap-frogging B) Stack effect C) Crowning D) Laddering 43. What does the “C” stand for in “RECEO-VS”? A) Command B) Confinement C) Conduction D) Convection 44. What do company officers do when the incident commander requests a personnel accountability report (PAR)? A) Report with the company to rehab B) Report with the company to the staging area C) Collect the passports from company members D) Physically verify that all assigned members are present 45. A motor vehicle accident causes a small gasoline spill. This is a Level _ incident. A) IV B) I C) II D) III 46. The sole responsibility of a(n) is to provide emergency assistance to crews working inside the hazardous area. A) rescue group B) interior attack team C) rapid intervention crew D) buddy system 47. Which agency establishes PELs for chemicals? A) NFPA B) NIOSH C) EPA D) OSHA 48. What is the most common hazard associated with confined spaces? A) Explosion B) Carcinogenic materials C) Electrical shock D) Atmospheric conditions 49. Which mnemonic helps fire fighters remember a set of lighter-than-air gases? A) HA HA MICEN B) OH ME TOO C) BRAIN TO DO D) BARKING SEALS 50. Which fire-extinguishing agent would be the best choice for use on delicate electronic equipment? A) Carbon dioxide B) Aqueous film-forming foam (AFFF) C) Ordinary dry chemical D) Multipurpose dry chemical 51. Which statement about the use of a thermal imager during overhaul operations is correct? A) Imagers used for search and rescue should not be used for overhaul. B) The imager depicts the temperature differential between an object and its surroundings. C) Some ambient light is required for the unit to produce a useful image. D) A thermal imager is particularly useful for scanning through heavy insulating materials. 52. Why should ground ladders that are unused be cleaned periodically? A) To prevent halyard deterioration B) To remove accumulated road grime C) To prevent oxidation D) To keep step and grab surfaces tacky 53. What is the target of the hose stream in a direct attack? A) The most threatened exposure B) The base of the fire C) Hot overhead gases D) Exposure surfaces 54. Which bulk storage vessel is a portable plastic tank surrounded by a stainless steel web? A) Tote B) Carboy C) Magazine D) Bulk sack 55. There is a high risk of environment damage if a fire involving is extinguished. A) pesticides B) oxidizers C) flammable gas D) explosives 56. How are rehabilitation concerns affected by high humidity? A) Regulation of body temperature is more difficult B) The likelihood of hypothermia increases with humidity C) Time spent is rehab can be reduced D) Rehab time must be doubled 57. What does depth of char most reliably indicate? A) Rate of spread B) Intensity and duration of burning C) Presence of ignitable liquids D) Type of heat source 58. Restaurants belong to which occupancy major use classification? A) High occupancy B) Institutional C) Commercial D) Public assembly 59. Which of the following is an early symptom of heat stroke? A) Profuse sweating B) Cold, clammy skin C) Lack of perspiration D) Weak pulse 60. If one member of a company needs rehabilitation, who goes to the rehabilitation area? A) The entire company B) The member and his or her assigned buddy C) That member only D) All members who need it 61. A flammable vapor concentration that is too lean to ignite is . A) above the upper explosive limit B) below the lower explosive limit C) above the lower explosive limit D) between the lower explosive limit and the upper explosive limit 62. What is the term for discoloration of the parts of a deceased person's body closest to the ground? A) Chromatis mortis B) Dependent lividity C) Morbid coagulation D) Myasthenia gravis 63. Which type of fire attack consists of overpowering a small fire with water or another extinguishing agent? A) Defensive B) Offensive C) Interior D) Quick 64. A fire fighter with specialized knowledge and training for high-angle rescue, structural collapse, trench rescue, confined-space, and similar operations is a . A) technical rescue technician B) search and rescue technician C) Fire Fighter II D) special operations technician 65. How should fire fighters approach a vehicle fire? A) Directly from the front B) Directly from the rear C) 45-degree angle from the side D) 90-degree angle from the side 66. A caller is connected directly to a telecommunicator through which device? A) Fire alarm box B) Call box C) Local alarm D) Central alarm station 67. What do older heat detectors lack that makes it difficult to track down the cause of an alarm? A) Wide-spaced combs B) Indicator light C) Reset switch D) Audible alarms 68. Which statement best summarizes when a dry chemical extinguisher should be serviced and recharged? A) After a discharge resulting in loss of 10 percent of pressurization B) After a discharge resulting in loss of 30 percent of pressurization C) After any discharge D) After a discharge resulting in loss of 20 percent of pressurization 69. Which process enables the incident commander to determine which resources will be needed to control the situation? A) Chain of command B) Preincident planning C) Personnel accountability D) Size-up 70. Microorganisms capable of causing disease are called . A) microbes B) septogens C) pathogens D) contagion 71. What is Type V construction? A) Ordinary B) Fire resistive C) Lightweight D) Wood frame 72. Which federal agency enforces and publicizes laws and regulations governing transportation of hazardous materials? A) Department of Energy B) Interstate Commerce Commission C) Environmental Protection Agency D) Department of Transportation 73. What is the most basic method of regaining orientation in a zero-visibility environment? A) Activate the PASS B) Probe the walls for a window or door C) Find and follow a hose line D) Listen for the sound of the apparatus motor 74. What is the term for the stiffening of muscles that occurs after death? A) Rigor mortis B) Morbidity C) Necrosis D) Lividity 75. An endothermic reaction is one that . A) releases energy B) requires a catalyst C) absorbs heat D) occurs in the absence of oxygen 76. Which detection instrument is used to monitor corrosive substances? A) Four-gas monitor B) pH meter C) Photoelectric ionizer D) Geiger 77. Which class of fire is depicted in the pictograph system by a flame and gasoline can? A) B B) D C) A D) C 78. What is the term for the lowest temperature at which a liquid produces enough flammable vapor to burn momentarily? A) Ignition temperature B) Flash point C) Fire point D) Flammable range 79. At an emergency scene, the safety officer reports directly to the . A) medical group supervisor B) incident commander C) operations chief D) general staff 80. What does the “W” stand for in the acronym TLV/TWA? A) Weapon B) Warning C) Water D) Weighted 81. What is the maximum capacity of a large-volume horizontal storage tank? A) 1320 gallons (5000 L) B) Several thousand gallons C) 528 gallons (2000 L) D) 119 gallons (450 L) 82. A master stream device that is permanently mounted on an engine and plumbed directly into the pump is a . A) deluge set B) monitor C) deck gun D) playpipe 83. How is a pull-station tamper alarm connected to the fire alarm system? A) Via remote monitoring station B) By radio C) There is no such connection D) Through shared wiring 84. The NFPA defines optional mission-specific competencies for which level of hazardous materials responder? A) Specialist B) Commander C) Technician D) Operations