VTNE Surgical Nursing test question and answers

Regarding wound healing, it is better to: A: Increase the size of the suture material rather than the number of sutures B: Increase the number of sutures rather than the size of the suture material C: Decrease both the size of the suture material and the number of the sutures D: Increase both the size of the suture material and the number of the sutures B: Increase the number of sutures rather than the size of the suture material All of the following statements regarding chlorhexidine gluconate surgical scrub are true except: A - Tends to stain the skin and hair coat B - Is effective against the Pseudomonas species C - Is marketed as Nolvasan D - Should be rinsed with alcohol A - Tends to stain the skin and hair coat Brainpower Read More Previous Play Next Rewind 10 seconds Move forward 10 seconds Unmute 0:00 / 0:00 Full screen Assuming 15 psi, the minimum conditions that must be met to ensure that a pack has been adequately sterilized by autoclaving are: A - 121°C for 15 minutes B - 131°F for 15 minutes C - 121°C for 25 minutes D - 131°F for 30 minutes A - 121°C for 15 minutes Which of the following is not a factor influencing the formation of exuberant granulation tissue? A - Presence of infection B - Amount of missing tissue C - Depth of the wound D - Location of the wound C - Depth of the wound Chemical cauterization: A - Releases toxic fumes, exposing team members to a potential hazard B - Is rarely used in veterinary medicine C - Is traumatic to adjacent tissues and therefore is not used in surgical cases D - Is a misnomer; chemicals cannot stop bleeding C - Is traumatic to adjacent tissues and therefore is not used in surgical cases During a cystotomy, the doctor requests a suture to close the bladder. Which suture is the most appropriate? A - Monofilament, absorbable with a taper point B - Monofilament, nonabsorbable with a taper point C - Multifilament, absorbable with cutting point D - Multifilament, nonabsorbable with a taper point A - Monofilament, absorbable with a taper point A declaw is also known as an: A - Orchidectomy B - Onychectomy C - Ovariohysterectomy D - Onychotomy B - Onychectomy When the term eviscerates is used, it can indicate that: A - The wound has dehisced. B - Abdominal contents protrude through the suture line. C - The aseptic technique has been broken and contamination has occurred. D - Infection has entered the body through the surgical wound. B - Abdominal contents protrude through the suture line. A gastrotomy refers to a surgical incision into the: A - Gastrocnemius muscle B - Peritoneal wall C - Stomach D - Small intestines C - Stomach Healing of a properly sutured surgical wound is most appropriately termed: A - First-intention healing B - Granulation C - Second-intention healing D - Third-intention healing A - First-intention healing Fracture apposition reduction refers to: A - Placing bones back in their normal positions B - Keeping bones still until healing has occurred C - Removing small fragments from around the fracture D - Placing pins through the marrow cavity A - Placing bones back in their normal positions Keeping tissues moist during a surgical procedure: A - Is important because dry tissues are less resistant to bacterial infection B - Is undesirable because wet tissue is an ideal medium for bacterial regeneration C - Is of little value D - Should be accomplished with 70% isopropyl alcohol A - Is important because dry tissues are less resistant to bacterial infection The most effective use for a Rongeur is to: A - Pinch off a bleeding vessel B - Elevate soft tissue off a bony surface C - Remove small pieces of bone D - Retract soft tissue away from bone C - Remove small pieces of bone What parameter(s) does the pulse oximeter measure? A -Pulse rate only B - Respiration rate and depth C - Oxygen saturation of hemoglobin and pulse rate D - Respiration rate and pulse rate C - Oxygen saturation of hemoglobin and pulse rate All of the following are good reasons for using an instrument tie (with the use of a needle holder) except: A - It is economical; small pieces of suture can be used and therefore suture material is not wasted. B - It saves time. C - It is more accurate than a one- or two-handed tie. D - It is readily adaptable to any type of wound closure. C - It is more accurate than a one- or two-handed tie. What surgical procedure is least likely to combat the debilitating complications of canine hip dysplasia? A - Triple pelvic osteotomy B - Total hip replacement C - Intramedullary pinning D - Pectineal myotomy C - Intramedullary pinning What is the appropriate time to soak an instrument in a cold sterilization solution before adequate sterilization is achieved? A - 30 minutes B - 15 minutes C - 45 minutes D - 10 hours D - 10 hours What is the most significant advantage of using a swaged-on needle as opposed to a closed-eye needle? A - The needle never separates from the suture. B - The suture diameter is smaller than the needle diameter. C - The tissue is subjected to fewer traumas because a single strand is pulled through the tissue. D - It saves time and money. C - The tissue is subjected to fewer traumas because a single strand is pulled through the tissue. Which of the following is a disadvantage of multifilament suture material? A - Less knot security than monofilament suture material B - Tears tissue more easily than monofilament suture material C - Has a greater tendency for wicking bacteria than monofilament suture material D - Has less strength than monofilament suture material C - Has a greater tendency for wicking bacteria than monofilament suture material Which of the following statements regarding compartment syndrome in the equine surgical patient is correct? A - Compartment syndrome only affects the surgery compartment. B - The "up" side of the patient can be affected. C - Following all proper precautions can prevent compartment syndrome. D - Compartment syndrome rarely results in euthanasia. B - The "up" side of the patient can be affected. Which of the following situations can cause hypocarbia? A - Decreased respiratory rate B - Increased respiratory rate C - Exhausted soda lime D - Kinked endotracheal tube B - Increased respiratory rate Place the following surgeries in the order in which they should be scheduled, from first to last: A - Cruciate repair, OHE, compound fracture repair, intestinal resection B - Intestinal resection, cruciate repair, compound fracture repair, OHE C - Compound fracture repair, cruciate repair, OHE, intestinal resection D - Cruciate repair, compound fracture repair, OHE, intestinal resection A - Cruciate repair, OHE, compound fracture repair, intestinal resection What is the correct order of tasks when preparing an animal for routine surgery? A - Premedicate, place IV catheter, clip and prep, move into surgery, final prep B - Place IV catheter, premedicate, clip and prep, final prep move into surgery C - Premedicate, IV catheter, move into surgery, clip and prep, final prep D - Move into surgery Place IV catheter, premedicate, clip and prep, final prep A - Premedicate, place IV catheter, clip and prep, move into surgery, final prep Chromic catgut is produced by exposure to basic chromium salts. How does this process affect it? A - Increases intermolecular bonding B - Decreases its strength C - Increases tissue reaction to it D - Decreases absorption time A - Increases intermolecular bonding If an animal goes home with a bandage, the client should observe the bandage daily and remove it if any of the following are observed except: A - Skin irritation at the edge of the bandage B - All bandages should be removed 24 hours after being applied C - The bandage is wet D - The position of the bandage has shifted B - All bandages should be removed 24 hours after being applied In terms of surgical contamination, endogenous organisms are those that: A - Originate from the patient's own body B - Come from the external surgical environment C - Rarely cause any problem in surgical wounds D - Come from the surgeon A - Originate from the patient's own body When a dog is presented for castration, and both testicles are descended, the veterinary technician will prepare the surgical site. In which area is the incision most commonly made? A - Flank B - Scrotum C - Prescrotal prepuce D - Mid-abdomen C - Prescrotal prepuce A veterinarian may elect to apply a bandage to an orthopedic patient for additional postoperative support. The type of bandage that would be applied to stabilize the hip after a hip luxation would be a/an: A - Ehmer sling B - Robert Jones bandage C - Spica splint D - Velpeau sling A - Ehmer sling Ehmer slings are used to stabilize a hip luxation Postoperative physical therapy can help the patient in each of the following ways except in: A - Enhancing patient comfort B - Preventing complications from disuse C - Slowing the healing process D - Decreasing edema C - Slowing the healing process A surgical prep for feline castration: A - Involves clipping the prescrotal region from the umbilicus to the scrotum B - Involves clipping the scrotum with a No. 40 clipper blade C - Does not involve hair removal because the entire scrotal area is prepped with Nolvasan and alcohol D - Includes plucking or pulling the hair from the scrotum before the surgical scrub D - Includes plucking or pulling the hair from the scrotum before the surgical scrub Which of the following clinical signs would not normally be seen if a dog were suffering from hemorrhage after an ovariohysterectomy? A - Decreased respiratory rate B - Pale mucous membranes C - Slow recovery from anesthesia D - Slow capillary refill time A - Decreased respiratory rate Which of the following statements regarding pyometra is incorrect? A - Onychectomy is usually curative. B - A purulent vaginal discharge is always present. C - Affected females usually have polyuria and polydipsia. D - It often occurs soon after a heat cycle. C - Affected females usually have polyuria and polydipsia. The chemical or mechanical destruction of pathogens is known as: A - Disinfection B - Decontamination C - Barrier D - Aseptic technique A - Disinfection Sterilization is the process of killing microorganisms by physical or chemical means. What is the quickest and most reliable form of sterilization? A - Steam under pressure B - Gas C - Dry heat D - Radiation A - Steam under pressure Which of the following statements regarding cesarean sections is false? A - Bloody vaginal discharge is expected following surgery. B - The newborns delivered by cesarean section are under the effects of anesthesia. C - The client should observe the surgical incision after 1 week, because the newborns do not start moving around the mammary area until then. D - The newborn should be immediately removed from the membranous sac that covers its body when it is removed from the uterus. C - The client should observe the surgical incision after 1 week, because the newborns do not start moving around the mammary area until then. The most effective sterilizing method for an object that could be damaged by heat is: A - Autoclaving B - Gas sterilization C - Flash flaming D - Alcohol scrub B - Gas sterilization How can you help prevent "strike through" during surgery? A - Make sure sharp instruments are protected so that they do not puncture the wrap and cause contamination B - Assist in keeping the surgical drapes and gown from becoming wet during surgery C - Make sure the drape is properly placed and opened so that the fenestration is not over a contaminated area D - Have reverse cutting needles available so that the suture does not pull through the tissue B - Assist in keeping the surgical drapes and gown from becoming wet during surgery