HESI EXIT EXAM STUDY VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 2023 LATEST UPDATE GRADED A

HESI EXIT EXAM STUDY VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 2023 LATEST UPDATE GRADED A A radiographer prepares to perform an AP projection of the distal femur on a patient with a suspected femoral fracture. Which represents the best approach for positioning both the patient and the x-ray tube? A. Rotate the leg 15 degrees medially; place the cathode end of the tube toward the foot. B. Rotate the leg 15 degrees medially; place the anode end of the tube toward the foot. C. Do not rotate the leg; place the anode end of the tube toward the foot. D. Do not rotate the leg; place the cathode end of the tube toward the foot. - C. Do not rotate the leg; place the anode end of the tube toward the foot. On an accurately positioned PA chest radiograph, the manubrium of the sternum is seen at the level of which thoracic vertebrae when the patient is sthenic? A. Third B. Fourth C. Second D. Fifth - B. Fourth According to Merrill's Atlas, which location represents the correct CR placement for an axiolateral oblique mandible projection for the ramus? A. The acanthion B. The point of contact between the lips C. The occlusal plane D. The region of interest - D. The region of interest The only saddle joint in the body is found between which two bones? A. Trapezium and the first metacarpal B. Trapezium and the navicular C. Navicular and first metatarsal D. Scaphoid and trapezium - A. Trapezium and the first metacarpal Which is the disease process that causes increased radiodensity in the lung fields on an image due to inflammation and accumulation of fluid? HESI Exit Exam Study QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS A. Primary Tuberculosis B. Pneumothorax C. Pneumonia D. Pleurisy - C. Pneumonia Which study is considered a nonfunctional examination of the urinary system? A. Retrograde urogram B. Voiding cystourethrogram C. Intravenous urogram D. Hypertensive urogram - A. Retrograde urogram How should the radiographer position the patient best to demonstrate a left axillary 6th rib fracture? A. Upright and 45 degree LPO B. Supine and 45 degree LPO C. Upright Posterior (PA) D. Prone - A. Upright and 45 degree LPO Which CR orientation is recommended for a radiographic image of the contrast-filled urinary bladder with the patient in the supine position? A. 2 inches inferior to the pubic symphysis with a 10 to 15 degree cephalad angle B. 2 inches superior to the pubic symphysis with a 10 to 15 degree caudad angle C. 1 inch proximal to the tip of the coccyx with a 10 to 15 degree cephalad angle D. 1 inch distal to the tip of the coccyx with a 10 to 15 degree caudad angle - B. 2 inches superior to the pubic symphysis with a 10 to 15 degree caudad angle A request for a shoulder exam comes from the ER. The patient has a large deformity anterior to the shoulder and the physician suspects an anterior dislocation. Which are the most common appropriate views to take on this patient? A. Posterior (PA) internal and external rotation views B. Posterior (PA) neutral and external rotation views C. AP projection in neutral rotation and PA oblique scapular Y D. Anterioposterior (AP) projections in internal, external, and neutral rotation - C. AP projection in neutral rotation and PA oblique scapular Y Which factor is critical to demonstrating fluid levels within the chest on a portable examination? A. 72" source to image receptor distance (SID) B. Exposure sufficient to see through the heart C. Central ray (CR) perpendicular to image receptor D. Horizonal central ray (CR) - D. Horizonal central ray (CR) Which projection of the thumb requires digits two through five to be extended, with the palmar surface of the hand flat against the IR as if for a PA hand projection? A. Posteroanterior (PA) B. Lateral C. Anteroposterior (AP) D. Posteroanterior (PA) Oblique - D. Posteroanterior (PA) Oblique The radiographer used the Holmblad method to perform a tunnel view of the knee. What is the primary advantage of utilizing this method instead of the Camp Coventry method? A. The Holmblad method shows no distortion longitudinally or laterally B. The Holmblad method is quick to position C. The Holmblad method is easier for the patient than the Camp Coventry method D. The Holmblad method is easier for the radiographer to properly position - A. The Holmblad method shows no distortion longitudinally or laterally A patient's abdominal image reveals the presence of multiple phleboliths. Where are these small calcifications found? A. Kidney B. Vein C. Ureter D. Gallbladder - B. Vein How should the patient be instructed to place their arms for a standing lateral projection of the sternum? A. Relaxed at their side B. Behind the back C. Forward D. Raised above the head - B. Behind the back Which bone contains a mastoid process? A. Occipital B. Sphenoid C. Parietal D. Temporal - D. Temporal In this chest radiograph, where is the clinically significant gas located? Under the Right Hemidiaphragm NO PICTURE A. Within the stomach B. Under the right hemidiaphragm C. Within the thorax D. Under the left hemidiaphragm - B. Under the right hemidiaphragm Which position of the elbow will clearly demonstrate the radial neck free of superimposition? A. AP B. Medial oblique C. Lateral oblique D. Lateral - C. Lateral oblique A radiographer critiques an anteroposterior (AP) ankle projection. The medial mortise joint is open while the lateral mortise joint is closed. How can the radiographer adjust the ankle to correct this image? A. No Correction Needed B. Increase internal rotation C. Increase external rotation D. Dorsiflex foot - A. No Correction Needed Which exam may be used to assess cruciate ligament pathology? A. Three view elbow series B. Wrist including navicular views C. Shoulder Arthrogram D. Knee arthrogram - D. Knee arthrogram What should be done to correct positioning on an AP elbow with lateral rotation, when the radial head is slightly superimposed over the proximal ulna on the first effort? A. The elbow joint should be rotated laterally. B. The forearm should be pronated to correct the error C. The elbow joint should be rotated medially D. The humerus and forearm should be placed in the same horizontal plane - A. The elbow joint should be rotated laterally. What should the radiographer do to correct this image? (HIP AP) A. Roll pt to slightly left side B. Increase internal rotation C. Increase external rotation D. No correction needed - D. No correction needed What can be demonstrated with a left lateral decubitus position of the thorax? A. Fluid in the right pleural space and air in the left pleural space B. Air in the right pleural space and fluid in the left pleural space C. Air and Fluid found in both sides D. None - B. Air in the right pleural space and fluid in the left pleural space When imaging the toes, how much is the CR angled for the AP axial image? A. No angle B. 25-30 degrees C. 15 degrees D. 5 Degrees - C. 15 degrees Which CR angulation is recommended to prevent foreshortening of the sacrum on an AP projection? A. 15 degrees cephalad B. 10 degrees cephalad C. 10 degrees caudad D. 15 degrees caudad - A. 15 degrees cephalad When imaging the calcaneus, how much is the CR angled for the AP axial image? A. 5 degrees toward the heel B. 30 degrees toward the heel C. 40 degrees toward the heel D. 15 degrees toward the heel - C. 40 degrees toward the heel A radiographer critiques an AP image of the ribs. The left SC joint is demonstrated without vertebral column superimposition. What should the radiographer do? A. Ask the patient to take a deeper inspiration B. Accept the image C. Rotate the patient to the left D. Rotate the patient to the right - D. Rotate the patient to the right According to "Merrill's Atlas", where should the CR be centered to best demonstrate the rami for a PA mandible projection? A. The acanthion B. The glabella C. The point of contact between the lips D. The Occlusal plane - A. The acanthion Where should the radiographer direct the CR for a PA chest? A. Midsagittal plane and 18-20 cm below the vertebral prominens B. Midsagittal plane and 14-16 cm below the vertebral prominens C. Midsagittal plane and 11-13 cm below the vertebral prominens D. Midsagittal plane and 7-9 cm below the vertebral prominens - A. Midsagittal plane and 18-20 cm below the vertebral prominens Study the four digital images of both shoulders. What best describes the quality of these images? NO PICTURE A. The degree of internal rotation was inadequate on both sides B. The degree of external rotation was inadequate on both sides C. All four are diagnostic D. The collimator field is too large in the left internal rotation view - A. The degree of internal rotation was inadequate on both sides Place the parts of the gastrointestinal tract in order from proximal to distal. A. Ileum B. Cecum C. Duodenum D. Jejunum - Duodenum, Jejunum, Ileum, Cecum Which represents the proper amount of internal leg rotation for the ankle mortise joint to appear open? A. 30 to 35 degrees B. 15 to 20 degrees C. 0 degrees D. 45 degrees - B. 15 to 20 degrees An image demonstrates the patella superimposing the medial condyle of the knee and little superimposition between the head of the fibula and the proximal tibia. Which projection of the knee has been correctly performed? A. Mediolateral lateral B. AP with medial rotation C. AP D. AP with lateral rotation - B. AP with medial rotation On a radiograph of a shoulder, the greater tubercle is visualized in profile. Which projection was taken? A. AP external rotation B. AP internal rotation C. Scapular-Y D. Transthoracic lateral (Lawrence method) - A. AP external rotation Which finding is considered a contraindication for myelography? A. Herniated nucleus pulposus B. Malignant spinal cord tumor C. Blood in the cerebrospinal fluid D. Bone fragments in the spinal canal - C. Blood in the cerebrospinal fluid Which bony landmark is commonly used for central ray location on an AP chest projection? A. Jugular notch B. Xiphoid process C. T7 spinous process D. Vertebrae prominens - A. Jugular notch Which projection will most clearly show a clay shoveler's fracture? A. Oblique hand B. Lateral cervical C. Axiolateral hip D. Lateral wrist - B. Lateral cervical What are recommended uses of the digital annotation tool? (Select the one(s) that apply) A. labeling CR projection B. entering technical factors C. labeling R or L of anatomy D. indicating date or time of exam E. indicating radiographer performing exam - A. labeling CR projection B. entering technical factors D. indicating date or time of exam E. indicating radiographer performing Which steps increase contrast in fluoroscopy? (Select the two that apply.) A. Use a larger collimator field. B. Increase milliamperes (mA). C. Use a smaller collimator field. D. Reduce kilovolts peak (kVp). E. Increase kilovolts peak (kVp). - C. Use a smaller collimator field. D. Reduce kilovolts peak (kVp). Which information in the patient history should prompt the radiographer to decide against using automatic exposure controls when taking a chest x-ray? A. Chronic bronchitis. B. Oat cell carcinoma. C. Pneumothorax. D. Emphysema. - D. Emphysema. An increase in which factor will improve spatial resolution? A. Focal spot size. B. Source to image receptor distance (SID). C. Grid ratio. D. Object to image receptor distance (OID). - B. Source to image receptor distance (SID). The RT is using ABC during fluoro. What change in pt exposure should the RT expect as the pt size increases? A. Increase in exposure B. Indeterminant change in exposure C. Reduction in exposure D. No change in exposure - A. Increase in exposure (ABC increases exposure as pt size increases, compensating for additional attenuation to maintain image brightness) What is the function of a rectifier? A. Convert alternating current to pulsating direct current B. Change direct current to high frequency current C. Increase 60 Hertz alternating current to high frequency current D. Convert direct current to alternating current - A. Convert alternating current to pulsating direct current A radiographer makes an exposure using an 8:1, 100 line per inch grid. When processing the image plate (IP) through the reader, the radiographer notices that a Moire pattern is seen on the displayed image. What is the probable cause of this artifact? A. The grid had a frequency similar to the reader's sampling frequency. B. Underexposure to the IP. C. The IP was upside down in the bucky tray. D. The IP was not fully erased the last time it was used. - A The grid had a frequency similar to the reader's sampling frequency. Which technique mimics the use of a grid? A. Increased OID. B. Decreased mAs C. Decreased SID D. Increased kVp - A. Increased OID. (The air-gap technique, or increased OID, may be used to reduce scatter radiation and thus, increase image contrast.) Which is the most likely cause of a histogram error? A. Selection of an incorrect exam from the look up table B. Incomplete erasure of the image plate C. Underexposure of the Image Receptor D. Malfunction of the plate reader electronics - A. Selection of an incorrect exam from the look up table which device temporarily stores an electric charge? A. Diode B. Autotransformer C. Rectifier D. Capacitor - D. Capacitor Without changing any other factors, which effect is caused by decreasing the field size from 14X17 inches to 8X10 inches? A. Increase in the amount of scatter radiation within the part. B. Decrease x-ray penetration of the part. C. Decrease in the amount of scatter radiation within the part. D. Increase x-ray penetration of the part. - C. Decrease in the amount of scatter radiation within the part How can magnification of the heart be reduced when performing a chest x-ray? A. Use the shortest possible exposure time. B. Use a 72-inch source-image-receptor-distance (SID). C. Use a high kVp and low mAs technique. D. Use a 40-inch source-image-receptor-distance (SID). - B. Use a 72-inch source- image-receptor-distance (SID). How is signal maximized to a digital image receptor? A. Shorter exposure time. B. Higher source to image receptor distance (SID) value. C. Lower milliamperage (mA) setting. D. Longer exposure time - D. Longer exposure time Which calculation is used to determine grid ratio? A. The width of the lead strips divided by the height of the lead strips. B. The height of the lead strips divided by the width of the lead strips. C. The width of the interspace material divided by the height of the lead strips. D. Height of the lead strips divided by the width of the interspace material - D. Height of the lead strips divided by the width of the interspace material Which step will reduce digital image noise, assuming no other changes? A. Image magnification. B. Longer exposure time. C. Small pixel size. D. Decreased kilovolts peak (kVp). - B. Longer exposure time. Why should computed radiography (CR) image receptors (IR) be erased if they haven't been used? A. Eliminate phantom artifacts. B. Prevent a Moire effect. C. Remove fog from background radiation. D. Ensure dropout artifacts do not occur. - C. Remove fog from background radiation. How often should lead aprons be evaluated to determine if cracks or holes are present? A. Every 3 months. B. Monthly. C. Every 6 months. D. Annually. - D. Annually. What do limiting spatial resolution (LSR) and modulation transfer function (MTF) have in common? A. They are both indicators of exposure for digital receptors. B. They measure how efficiently an image is moved to the picture archiving and communication system (PACS). C. They both measure spatial resolution in digital imaging. D. They both affect brightness of the digital image. - C. They both measure spatial resolution in digital imaging. Which system can store images? A. PACS B. RIS C. DICOM D. HIS - A. PACS Which action can improve recorded detail? A. Increase the object-image receptor-distance (OID). B. Use the largest focal spot. C. Select a larger kilovolts peak (kVp). D. Increase the source-image receptor-distance (SID). - D. Increase the source- image receptor-distance (SID). Prior to performing a posteroanterior (PA) chest projection with automatic exposure control (AEC), the radiographer discovers that the patient has had a right total pneumonectomy. Which technical consideration should be considered? A. Selecting only the detector on the right side. B. Selecting only the detector on the left side. C. Selecting the center detector. D. Selecting both outer detectors. - B. Selecting only the detector on the left side. Why should a radiographer routinely use a small focal spot when imaging extremities? A. Increase the life of the x-ray tube. B. Decrease in patient dose. C. Increase in spatial resolution. D. Decrease in contrast. - C. Increase in spatial resolution Which technique produces a 2 milliroentgens (mR) exposure to an image receptor plate if 70 kilovolts peak (kVp) at 25 milliampere-seconds (mAs) produces 1.6 mR? A. 70 kVp at 27.5 mAs. B. 70 kVp at 50 mAs. C. 70 kVp at 35 mAs. D. 70 kVp at 31.25 mAs. - D. 70 kVp at 31.25 mAs. Which x-ray beam characteristic is reduced by adding aluminum filtration? A. Energy of the x-ray beam. B. Half-value layer. C. Quantity of x-rays. D. X-ray beam quality. - C. Quantity of x-rays How does an increase in noise affect the quality of a digital image? A. Density is increased. B. Contrast is increased. C. Density is decreased. D. Contrast is decreased - D. Contrast is decreased Which digital communication network is used to store patient billing information? A. RIS B. PACS C. HR D. HIS - D. HIS Which standard governs communication between the system that contains the patient's full medical information and the system that has radiology-specific data? A. HL-7 B. DICOM C. PACS D. HIS - A. HL-7 A radiographer is performing a forearm exam on a patient with advanced Parkinson's Disease. Which Technical factor adjustments should be used? A. Decrease the milliampere-seconds (mAs) from normal to compensate for decreased bone density. B. Decrease the exposure time to reduce risk of patient motion. C. Increase the kilovolts peak (kVp) from normal to compensate for increased bone density. D. Increase the mAs from normal to compensate for increased tissue attenuation. - B. Decrease the exposure time to reduce risk of patient motion. Which part of the x-ray circuit is controlled by adjusting the milliamperage (mA) setting on the operating console for the purpose of producing the heat necessary for thermionic emission? A. Timer circuit. B. Primary circuit. C. Secondary circuit. D. Filament circuit. - D. Filament circuit. Which digital post-processing results in a black background surrounding the original collimated edges? A. Subtraction. B. Collimation. C. Shuttering. D. Beam restriction. - C. Shuttering. Which statement is true regarding exposure indicator and the evaluation of digital images? A. Radiographers do not need to review the exposure indicator during image evaluation. B. If the exposure indicator falls within the manufacturer's acceptable range, image contrast and brightness do not need to be reviewed. C. Exposure indicator is reviewed only when image contrast or brightness is suboptimal. D. Exposure indicator must be reviewed with every image and must fall within the manufacturer's acceptable range - D. Exposure indicator must be reviewed with every image and must fall within the manufacturer's acceptable range X-ray machines are designed to operate at a specific and continuous supply voltage. Which part of the imaging system is responsible for keeping incoming voltage adjusted to the proper value? A. Milliampere (mA) meter. B. Line compensator. C. Autotransformer. D. Kilovolts peak (kVp) meter. - B. Line compensator. How does the Density log Exposure (D log E) curve appear for a digital imaging receptor (IR)? A. A steep slope. B. An S curve. C. A shallow slope. D. A straight line at a 45 degree angle. - D. A straight line at a 45 degree angle. Which change should be made when performing an abdomen radiograph on a patient with ascites? A. Raise exposure factors. B. Increase source to image receptor distance (SID). C. Use an abdominal compression device. D. Choose a lower millampere (mA) station. - A. Raise exposure factors. Which Identifying information is important to include on each digital Image? (Select Three that apply) A. Ordering Physician B. Clinical Diagnosis C. Health Care Facility D. Patient's DOB E. Patient's Name - C. Health Care Facility D. Patient's DOB E. Patient's Name Where is edge enhancement post processing most helpful in digital radiography? A. Abdominal soft tissue studies. B. High contrast situations. C. Spinal examinations. D. Low contrast situations. - D. Low contrast situations. What is the term for the adjustment of image brightness, regardless of exposure received? A. Rescaling. B. Detective quantum efficiency (DQE). C. Dose area product (DAP). D. Automatic brightness control (ABC). - A. Rescaling. What is the most likely reason for the increase in quantum noise on a computed radiography (CR) image? A. Higher than required kVp B. Lower than required kVp C. Higher than required mAs D. Lower than required mAs - D. Lower than required mAs What is the result if pixel bit depth is decreased? A. Spatial resolution is increased. B. Brightness is increased. C. Contrast resolution is decreased. D. Image noise is decreased. - C. Contrast resolution is decreased. What is the longest field size dimension allowable for 10 inches by 12 inches collimation at a 40 inch source to image distance (SID)? A.11.4 inches. B. 10.6 inches. C. 12.8 inches. D. 13.2 inches. - C. 12.8 inches. Who judges radiographic images for quality? (Select the four that apply.) A. Quality control technologists. B. Lawyers. C. Radiographers. D. Radiologists. E. Ordering physicians. - A. Quality control technologists. C. Radiographers. D. Radiologists. E. Ordering physicians. Picture archiving and communication system (PACS) networks are capable of performing which functions? (Select the two that apply.) A. Tracking radiology scheduling information. B. Processing laboratory reports. C. Tracking billing information. D. Transmitting diagnostic images to remote work stations. E. Downloading images from different imaging modalities. - D. Transmitting diagnostic images to remote work stations. E. Downloading images from different imaging modalities. On which system does hospital staff input new orders for radiologic examinations? A. Radiology information system. B. Picture archiving and communication system. C. Digital imaging and communications system. D. Hospital information system. - D. Hospital information system. Which pathologic condition requires a reduction in exposure factors to produce an acceptable image? A. Congestive heart failure (CHF). B. Emphysema. C. Late stage Paget's disease. D. Atelectasis. - B. Emphysema. If all the bucky digital images from one radiographic room seem to appear excessively noisy, what might the radiographer suspect? A. The x-ray room may need recalibration. B. The automatic exposure control (AEC) is set at an inappropriate speed class. C. There is a problem with the digital receptor. D. It could be an anomaly and should continue to be monitored. - B. The automatic exposure control (AEC) is set at an inappropriate speed class. Digital radiography has the ability to produce 16,000 shades of gray. What appropriate bit depth (dynamic range) does this represent? A. 10 bit depth. B. 12 bit depth. C. 14 bit depth. D. 16 bit depth. - C. 14 bit depth. What could cause a computed radiography image with very noticeable lines uniformly in the same direction over the entire image? (Select the three that apply.) A. Cassette exposed to the wrong side. B. Cassette was exposed to background radiation. C. Grid used with grid frequency equal to the image reader's laser scan lines. D. Grid utilized with grid lines running parallel to the laser scan lines of the image reader device. E. Noise resulting from the plate reader electronics. - C. Grid used with grid frequency equal to the image reader's laser scan lines. D. Grid utilized with grid lines running parallel to the laser scan lines of the image reader device. E. Noise resulting from the plate reader electronics. Which statement is correct regarding the relationship of patient dose to exposure index (EI)? A. EI gives a very accurate representation of patient dose. B. EI gives an approximation of the patient's dose. C. EI gives an exact measurement of patient dose. D. EI is always greater than the patient's dose. - B. EI gives an approximation of the patient's dose. A breathing technique is planned for a right anterior oblique (RAO) sternum radiograph. The intended exposure is 50 milliampere-seconds (mAs) at 75 kilovolts peak (kVp) at 100 centimeter source to image receptor distance (SID). Which milliampere (mA) station is preferred, assuming the radiographer ensures exposure occurs during the act of inspiration? A. 100 B. 50 C. 25 D. 10 - B. 50 If a transformer has a greater number of turns in the secondary coil than in the primary coil, how will the output voltage be affected? A. Unable to determine from information given. B. Decreased. C. No change. D. Increased. - D. Increased. A step-up transformer with 300 turns in the primary coil is supplied with 220 volts to this primary. How many secondary turns are needed to produce a 66,000-volt output? A. 66,000 turns. B. 14 turns. C. 90,000 turns. D. 1 turn. - C. 90,000 turns. (66,000/220=300:1 300 primary x 300 secondary=90,000 turns) At a 50 inch source-to-image-receptor-distance (SID), how closely must the x-ray beam and the light field be aligned? A. 2 inches. B. 0.5 inches. C. 1 inch. D. 5 inches. - C. 1 inch. (2% SID--50 x.02=1) An imaging department, having difficulty obtaining acceptable tangential patella images, has opted to have the post processing mode set to "fixed" for all patella images. Why is this a good choice? A. Fixed mode does not recognize collimation borders. B. Fixed mode works well for exams where it is difficult to center the image on the image receptor (IR). C. Fixed mode ignores exposure index (EI) and is useful for body parts with a prosthesis. D. Fixed mode compares acquired data to a histogram and chooses appropriate brightness and contrast. - B. Fixed mode works well for exams where it is difficult to center the image on the image receptor (IR). A finished radiograph has marked quantum mottle. Positioning, collimation, and identification markers are correct. Which action should the radiographer take? A. Repeat the image with an appropriate increase in technical factors. B. Reprocess the image under a different algorithm to improve visual appearance. C. Alter the image window width and level to improve the visual appeal, then approve. D. Approve the image and send it to Picture Archiving and Communication System (PACS). - A. Repeat the image with an appropriate increase in technical factors. Place the following milliampere-seconds (mAs) selections in order from which will cause the greatest exposure to the image receptors (IR) to the least exposure, if all other factors remain the same. A. 100 mAs. B. 200 mAs. C. 25 mAs. D. 50 mAs - b, a, d, c Pelvis routine calls for an anteroposterior (AP) with a perpendicular central ray (CR), and an axial AP with a 40 degree cephalic angle. Using a caliper measurement, the technique chart yields a perfect set of exposure factors for the perpendicular AP. How will the necessary exposure factors for the axial differ from the perpendicular AP? A. Same measurement, but more bone, higher kilovolts peak (kVp) and milliampere- seconds (mAs). B. Greater measurement, higher kilovolts peak (kVp) and milliampere-seconds (mAs). C. Smaller measurement, lower kilovolts peak (kVp) and milliampere-seconds (mAs). D. Same measurement, same technical factors. - B. Greater measurement, higher kilovolts peak (kVp) and milliampere-seconds (mAs). Which computed radiography (CR) or digital radiography (DR) system produces images with the highest spatial resolution? A. Photostimulable phosphor CR. B. Cesium iodide / amorphous silicon - indirect DR. C. Cesium iodide - indirect capture DR D. Amorphous selenium - direct capture DR. - D. Amorphous selenium - direct capture DR. If 7 milliampere-seconds (mAs) provides optimal density without a grid, which mAs should be used with a 12:1 grid? A. 21 B. 42 C. 28 D. 35 - D. 35 (12:1 has a GCF of 5--12x5=35) Which best describes anode heel effect? A. Absorption of part of the x-ray beam by the target track. B. A phenomenon where x-ray intensity is greater under the anode. C. Absorption of part of the x-ray beam by the focusing cup. D. A phenomenon where x-ray intensity is greater under the cathode. - D. A phenomenon where x-ray intensity is greater under the cathode. How does emphysema impact radiographic imaging of the chest? A. Emphysema is a destructive disease, meaning the chest tissue is more radiolucent. B. Emphysema is an additive disease, meaning the chest tissue is more radiopaque. C. Emphysema has no effect on the chest tissue, requiring no technical compensation. D. Emphysema is a destructive disease, but this will not have an effect on the patient's mass. - A. Emphysema is a destructive disease, meaning the chest tissue is more radiolucent. Which type of exposure technique chart would allow the radiographer to make small, fine adjustments for orthopedic work? A. Automatic exposure control (AEC). B. Anatomically programmed radiography (APR). C. Variable kilovolts peak (kVp). D. Fixed kilovolts peak (kVp). - C. Variable kilovolts peak (kVp). Which material is used on most anode disks and is light, strong, and heat-resistant? A. Chrome vanadium steel alloy. B. Mild steel. C. Molybdenum. D. Lead. - C. Molybdenum. Which factor will increase x-ray beam quantity at the image receptor (IR) without increasing heat units produced by the tube? A. Decreased potential difference. B. Decreased filtration. C. Increased grid ratio. D. Increased source-image distance (SID) - B. Decreased filtration. Historically, rhenium was alloyed to the tungsten in the filament of valve tubes to increase electron emission. What is the major reason this isn't used in x-ray tube filaments? A. To maximize the melting point of the filament. B. To increase the working life of the filament. C. To reduce the vaporization of the filament. D. To permit fine control of electron emission by filament heating current. - D. To permit fine control of electron emission by filament heating current. What is the result if the total lead content of a grid is decreased? A. Greater image contrast. B. Increased scatter absorption. C. Decreased scatter absorption. D. Higher patient dose. - C. Decreased scatter absorption. Assuming other exposure factors remain the same, which source-to-image-receptor- distance (SID) causes the greatest reduction in x-ray quantity at the image receptor (IR)? A. 44 inches. B. 60 inches. C. 72 inches. D. 40 inches. - C. 72 inches. Which component of radiographic noise in digital imaging is controlled by the radiographer? A. Structure mottle. B. Quantum mottle. C. Film graininess. D. Electronic noise - B. Quantum mottle Which will increase the appearance of noise in a digital image, assuming only the named factor in each response is changed? A. Short SID. B. Large matrix. C. Increased mAs. D. High kVp technique. - B. Large matrix. Which component of a diagnostic x-ray tube restricts the primary beam to the area of interest? A. Focusing cup. B. Protective housing. C. Electrostatic lenses. D. Collimator. - D. Collimator. Which advantage does a 500 milliampere (mA) station have over a 200 mA station? A. Greater visibility of detail. B. Increased photon flux to the image receptor (IR). C. Longer exposure time. D. Higher load on the x-ray tube. - B. Increased photon flux to the image receptor (IR). Which factor would the radiographer choose to maximize recorded detail in the image? A. Low milliampere-seconds (mAs). B. Small focal spot. C. 100 cm source to image receptor distance (SID) .D. High kilovolts peak (kVp). - B. Small focal spot Which term refers to the process by which digital radiography (DR) systems adjust for exposure errors so that the image is displayed with proper brightness and contrast levels? A. Automatic rescaling. B. Edge enhancement. C. Image inversion. D. Contrast manipulation. - A. Automatic rescaling. Which function are Radiology information system (RIS) networks are capable of performing? A. Processing laboratory reports. B. Tracking billing information. C. Tracking radiology scheduling information. D. Recording and retrieving diagnostic images. - C. Tracking radiology scheduling information. Why is it important for the radiographer to observe the milliampere seconds (mAs) readout at the end of each exposure when using automatic exposure control (AEC)? A. It provides an indication that the proper amount of exposure was used. B. This value may be used to estimate patient dose. C. It provides a visual cue to release the exposure switch. D. This value may be used as a basis for calculating manual techniques. - D. This value may be used as a basis for calculating manual techniques. What results from utilizing a lower ratio grid? A. Higher contrast and greater latitude in central ray (CR) positioning. B. Higher contrast and less latitude in central ray (CR) positioning. C. Lower contrast, but greater error margin in central ray (CR) placement. D. Lower contrast, but less leeway in positioning the central ray (CR) to the grid. - C. Lower contrast, but greater error margin in central ray (CR) placement. How can the contrast scale be modified on a digital image? (Select the two that apply.) A. Decrease the kilovolts peak (kVp). B. Increase the kilovolts peak (kVp). C. Alter the window level. D. Collimate more closely. E. Alter the window width - D. Collimate more closely. E. Alter the window width Determine the file size for an image with a 512 x 512 matrix and 12 gray scale bit depth. A. 262,144 bytes. B. 393,216 bytes. C. 3,145,748 bytes. D. 25,165,824 bytes. - B. 393,216 bytes. Which pathologic condition will result in the greatest attenuation of the beam? A. Emphysema. B. Multiple Myeloma. C. Gout. D. Ascites. - D. Ascites. What would a continuous, fine, horizontal white line across the computed radiography image indicate? A. Dirt on the light guide or laser head. B. Backscatter artifact. C. Static electricity. D. A crack in the phosphor layer of the cassette. - A. Dirt on the light guide or laser head. How does a radiographer maximize signal to digital image receptors? (Select the three that apply.) A. Shorter source to image receptor distance (SID). B. Lower milliamperage (mA). C. Longer source to image receptor distance (SID). D. Compression of the body part. E. Longer exposure time. - A. Shorter source to image receptor distance (SID). D. Compression of the body part. E. Longer exposure time. Which description best defines a histogram? A. The quantization of photon data striking the image receptor (IR). B. The visual means for the radiographer to critique the radiographic image. C. The mathematical analysis of the data set received by the image receptor (IR). D. Graph where x-axis is the amount of exposure read, and the y-axis is the number of pixels. - D. Graph where x-axis is the amount of exposure read, and the y-axis is the number of pixels. If a radiographer wanted to double image density without doubling the patient's dose, which action should be taken? A. Double kilovolts peak (kVp). B. Increase kilovolts peak (kVp) by 15%. C. Increase milliampere-seconds (mAs) by 15%. D. Double milliampere-seconds (mAs). - B. Increase kilovolts peak (kVp) by 15%. A radiographer is performing a portable abdomen is using an image receptor with an 8:1 grid. The radiographer knows a technique for the abdomen using a 12:1 grid is 80 kilovolts peak (kVp) using 50 milliampere-seconds (mAs). Which would the new technique be in order to maintain image quality? A. 80 kVp @ 40 mAs. B. 80 kVp @ 25 mAs. C. 80 kVp @ 30 mAs D. 80 kVp @ 60.5 mAs. - A. 80 kVp @ 40 mAs. (GCF for 8:1 is 4. (50x4)/5=40) In conventional tomography, the radiographer is able to control the thickness of the tomographic slice by altering which of the following? A. Fulcrum height. B. Exposure angle C. Amplitude. D. Tube trajectory. - B. Exposure angle Computed radiography (CR) imaging creates images with poorer resolution than that of film screen. What compensates for this loss of resolution? A. The ability to reprocess images. B. The wide latitude. C. Use of edge enhancement. D. Use of high-pass filtering. - B. The wide latitude. Which is one function of a picture archiving and communication system (PACS) network? A. Holding reports dictated by the radiologist. B. Listing inpatient ordering information. C. Downloading images from different imaging modalities. D. Tracking billing information. - C. Downloading images from different imaging modalities. If computed radiography (CR) imaging plates (IP) haven't been used, how often should they be erased? A. 48 hours. B. 72 hours. C. 96 hours. D. 24 hours. - A. 48 hours. Which is the preferred method for indicating the correct anatomic side on a radiographic image? A. Photoflash the marker on a corner of the image after exposure. B. Write the appropriate marker directly on the film after exposure. C. Place a side marker directly on the image receptor (IR) prior to exposure. D. Electronically annotate the correct side prior to exposure. - C. Place a side marker directly on the image receptor (IR) prior to exposure. In order to increase the number of shades of gray displayed on a digital image what should be done? A. Increase the window width. B. Increase the window level. C. Decrease the window level. D. Decrease the window width. - A. Increase the window width. Which term refers to unwanted fluctuations in the brightness of an image? A. Static. B. Flux. C. Interference. D. Noise. - D. Noise. How much compensation is needed for a change to a small focal spot? A. None. B. Add 30% to milliampere-seconds (mAs). C. Add 15% to kilovolts peak (kVp). D. Double milliampere-seconds (mAs). - A. None. What is a method of electronic display resolution quality control testing? A. Detective quantum efficiency (DQE) test. B. Luminescence test. C. Society of Motion Picture and Television Engineers (SMPTE) test pattern. D. Wire mesh test - C. Society of Motion Picture and Television Engineers (SMPTE) test pattern. In which way can the radiographer minimize motion due to peristalsis? A. Give the patient explicit instructions. B. Decrease exposure time. C. Expose the radiograph on inspiration. D. Expose the radiograph on expiration. - B. Decrease exposure time. A radiographer prepares to perform an AP projection of the distal femur on a patient with a suspected femoral fracture. Which represents the best approach for positioning both the patient and the x-ray tube? A. Rotate the leg 15 degrees medially; place the cathode end of the tube toward the foot. B. Rotate the leg 15 degrees medially; place the anode end of the tube toward the foot. C. Do not rotate the leg; place the anode end of the tube toward the foot. D. Do not rotate the leg; place the cathode end of the tube toward the foot. - C. Do not rotate the leg; place the anode end of the tube toward the foot. On an accurately positioned PA chest radiograph, the manubrium of the sternum is seen at the level of which thoracic vertebrae when the patient is sthenic? A. Third B. Fourth C. Second D. Fifth - B. Fourth According to Merrill's Atlas, which location represents the correct CR placement for an axiolateral oblique mandible projection for the ramus? A. The acanthion B. The point of contact between the lips C. The occlusal plane D. The region of interest - D. The region of interest The only saddle joint in the body is found between which two bones? A. Trapezium and the first metacarpal B. Trapezium and the navicular C. Navicular and first metatarsal D. Scaphoid and trapezium - A. Trapezium and the first metacarpal Which is the disease process that causes increased radiodensity in the lung fields on an image due to inflammation and accumulation of fluid? A. Primary Tuberculosis B. Pneumothorax C. Pneumonia D. Pleurisy - C. Pneumonia Which study is considered a nonfunctional examination of the urinary system? A. Retrograde urogram B. Voiding cystourethrogram C. Intravenous urogram D. Hypertensive urogram - A. Retrograde urogram How should the radiographer position the patient best to demonstrate a left axillary 6th rib fracture? A. Upright and 45 degree LPO B. Supine and 45 degree LPO C. Upright Posterior (PA) D. Prone - A. Upright and 45 degree LPO Which CR orientation is recommended for a radiographic image of the contrast-filled urinary bladder with the patient in the supine position? A. 2 inches inferior to the pubic symphysis with a 10 to 15 degree cephalad angle B. 2 inches superior to the pubic symphysis with a 10 to 15 degree caudad angle C. 1 inch proximal to the tip of the coccyx with a 10 to 15 degree cephalad angle D. 1 inch distal to the tip of the coccyx with a 10 to 15 degree caudad angle - B. 2 inches superior to the pubic symphysis with a 10 to 15 degree caudad angle A request for a shoulder exam comes from the ER. The patient has a large deformity anterior to the shoulder and the physician suspects an anterior dislocation. Which are the most common appropriate views to take on this patient? A. Posterior (PA) internal and external rotation views B. Posterior (PA) neutral and external rotation views C. AP projection in neutral rotation and PA oblique scapular Y D. Anterioposterior (AP) projections in internal, external, and neutral rotation - C. AP projection in neutral rotation and PA oblique scapular Y Which factor is critical to demonstrating fluid levels within the chest on a portable examination? A. 72" source to image receptor distance (SID) B. Exposure sufficient to see through the heart C. Central ray (CR) perpendicular to image receptor D. Horizonal central ray (CR) - D. Horizonal central ray (CR) Which projection of the thumb requires digits two through five to be extended, with the palmar surface of the hand flat against the IR as if for a PA hand projection? A. Posteroanterior (PA) B. Lateral C. Anteroposterior (AP) D. Posteroanterior (PA) Oblique - D. Posteroanterior (PA) Oblique The radiographer used the Holmblad method to perform a tunnel view of the knee. What is the primary advantage of utilizing this method instead of the Camp Coventry method? A. The Holmblad method shows no distortion longitudinally or laterally B. The Holmblad method is quick to position C. The Holmblad method is easier for the patient than the Camp Coventry method D. The Holmblad method is easier for the radiographer to properly position - A. The Holmblad method shows no distortion longitudinally or laterally A patient's abdominal image reveals the presence of multiple phleboliths. Where are these small calcifications found? A. Kidney B. Vein C. Ureter D. Gallbladder - B. Vein How should the patient be instructed to place their arms for a standing lateral projection of the sternum? A. Relaxed at their side B. Behind the back C. Forward D. Raised above the head - B. Behind the back Which bone contains a mastoid process? A. Occipital B. Sphenoid C. Parietal D. Temporal - D. Temporal In this chest radiograph, where is the clinically significant gas located? Under the Right Hemidiaphragm NO PICTURE A. Within the stomach B. Under the right hemidiaphragm C. Within the thorax D. Under the left hemidiaphragm - B. Under the right hemidiaphragm Which position of the elbow will clearly demonstrate the radial neck free of superimposition? A. AP B. Medial oblique C. Lateral oblique D. Lateral - C. Lateral oblique A radiographer critiques an anteroposterior (AP) ankle projection. The medial mortise joint is open while the lateral mortise joint is closed. How can the radiographer adjust the ankle to correct this image? A. No Correction Needed B. Increase internal rotation C. Increase external rotation D. Dorsiflex foot - A. No Correction Needed Which exam may be used to assess cruciate ligament pathology? A. Three view elbow series B. Wrist including navicular views C. Shoulder Arthrogram D. Knee arthrogram - D. Knee arthrogram What should be done to correct positioning on an AP elbow with lateral rotation, when the radial head is slightly superimposed over the proximal ulna on the first effort? A. The elbow joint should be rotated laterally. B. The forearm should be pronated to correct the error C. The elbow joint should be rotated medially D. The humerus and forearm should be placed in the same horizontal plane - A. The elbow joint should be rotated laterally. What should the radiographer do to correct this image? (HIP AP) A. Roll pt to slightly left side B. Increase internal rotation C. Increase external rotation D. No correction needed - D. No correction needed What can be demonstrated with a left lateral decubitus position of the thorax? A. Fluid in the right pleural space and air in the left pleural space B. Air in the right pleural space and fluid in the left pleural space C. Air and Fluid found in both sides D. None - B. Air in the right pleural space and fluid in the left pleural space When imaging the toes, how much is the CR angled for the AP axial image? A. No angle B. 25-30 degrees C. 15 degrees D. 5 Degrees - C. 15 degrees Which CR angulation is recommended to prevent foreshortening of the sacrum on an AP projection? A. 15 degrees cephalad B. 10 degrees cephalad C. 10 degrees caudad D. 15 degrees caudad - A. 15 degrees cephalad When imaging the calcaneus, how much is the CR angled for the AP axial image? A. 5 degrees toward the heel B. 30 degrees toward the heel C. 40 degrees toward the heel D. 15 degrees toward the heel - C. 40 degrees toward the heel A radiographer critiques an AP image of the ribs. The left SC joint is demonstrated without vertebral column superimposition. What should the radiographer do? A. Ask the patient to take a deeper inspiration B. Accept the image C. Rotate the patient to the left D. Rotate the patient to the right - D. Rotate the patient to the right According to "Merrill's Atlas", where should the CR be centered to best demonstrate the rami for a PA mandible projection? A. The acanthion B. The glabella C. The point of contact between the lips D. The Occlusal plane - A. The acanthion Where should the radiographer direct the CR for a PA chest? A. Midsagittal plane and 18-20 cm below the vertebral prominens B. Midsagittal plane and 14-16 cm below the vertebral prominens C. Midsagittal plane and 11-13 cm below the vertebral prominens D. Midsagittal plane and 7-9 cm below the vertebral prominens - A. Midsagittal plane and 18-20 cm below the vertebral prominens Study the four digital images of both shoulders. What best describes the quality of these images? NO PICTURE A. The degree of internal rotation was inadequate on both sides B. The degree of external rotation was inadequate on both sides C. All four are diagnostic D. The collimator field is too large in the left internal rotation view - A. The degree of internal rotation was inadequate on both sides Place the parts of the gastrointestinal tract in order from proximal to distal. A. Ileum B. Cecum C. Duodenum D. Jejunum - Duodenum, Jejunum, Ileum, Cecum Which represents the proper amount of internal leg rotation for the ankle mortise joint to appear open? A. 30 to 35 degrees B. 15 to 20 degrees C. 0 degrees D. 45 degrees - B. 15 to 20 degrees An image demonstrates the patella superimposing the medial condyle of the knee and little superimposition between the head of the fibula and the proximal tibia. Which projection of the knee has been correctly performed? A. Mediolateral lateral B. AP with medial rotation C. AP D. AP with lateral rotation - B. AP with medial rotation On a radiograph of a shoulder, the greater tubercle is visualized in profile. Which projection was taken? A. AP external rotation B. AP internal rotation C. Scapular-Y D. Transthoracic lateral (Lawrence method) - A. AP external rotation Which finding is considered a contraindication for myelography? A. Herniated nucleus pulposus B. Malignant spinal cord tumor C. Blood in the cerebrospinal fluid D. Bone fragments in the spinal canal - C. Blood in the cerebrospinal fluid Which bony landmark is commonly used for central ray location on an AP chest projection? A. Jugular notch B. Xiphoid process C. T7 spinous process D. Vertebrae prominens - A. Jugular notch Which projection will most clearly show a clay shoveler's fracture? A. Oblique hand B. Lateral cervical C. Axiolateral hip D. Lateral wrist - B. Lateral cervical What are recommended uses of the digital annotation tool? (Select the one(s) that apply) A. labeling CR projection B. entering technical factors C. labeling R or L of anatomy D. indicating date or time of exam E. indicating radiographer performing exam - A. labeling CR projection B. entering technical factors D. indicating date or time of exam E. indicating radiographer performing Which steps increase contrast in fluoroscopy? (Select the two that apply.) A. Use a larger collimator field. B. Increase milliamperes (mA). C. Use a smaller collimator field. D. Reduce kilovolts peak (kVp). E. Increase kilovolts peak (kVp). - C. Use a smaller collimator field. D. Reduce kilovolts peak (kVp). Which information in the patient history should prompt the radiographer to decide against using automatic exposure controls when taking a chest x-ray? A. Chronic bronchitis. B. Oat cell carcinoma. C. Pneumothorax. D. Emphysema. - D. Emphysema. An increase in which factor will improve spatial resolution? A. Focal spot size. B. Source to image receptor distance (SID). C. Grid ratio. D. Object to image receptor distance (OID). - B. Source to image receptor distance (SID). The RT is using ABC during fluoro. What change in pt exposure should the RT expect as the pt size increases? A. Increase in exposure B. Indeterminant change in exposure C. Reduction in exposure D. No change in exposure - A. Increase in exposure (ABC increases exposure as pt size increases, compensating for additional attenuation to maintain image brightness) What is the function of a rectifier? A. Convert alternating current to pulsating direct current B. Change direct current to high frequency current C. Increase 60 Hertz alternating current to high frequency current D. Convert direct current to alternating current - A. Convert alternating current to pulsating direct current A radiographer makes an exposure using an 8:1, 100 line per inch grid. When processing the image plate (IP) through the reader, the radiographer notices that a Moire pattern is seen on the displayed image. What is the probable cause of this artifact? A. The grid had a frequency similar to the reader's sampling frequency. B. Underexposure to the IP. C. The IP was upside down in the bucky tray. D. The IP was not fully erased the last time it was used. - A The grid had a frequency similar to the reader's sampling frequency. Which technique mimics the use of a grid? A. Increased OID. B. Decreased mAs C. Decreased SID D. Increased kVp - A. Increased OID. (The air-gap technique, or increased OID, may be used to reduce scatter radiation and thus, increase image contrast.) Which is the most likely cause of a histogram error? A. Selection of an incorrect exam from the look up table B. Incomplete erasure of the image plate C. Underexposure of the Image Receptor D. Malfunction of the plate reader electronics - A. Selection of an incorrect exam from the look up table which device temporarily stores an electric charge? A. Diode B. Autotransformer C. Rectifier D. Capacitor - D. Capacitor Without changing any other factors, which effect is caused by decreasing the field size from 14X17 inches to 8X10 inches? A. Increase in the amount of scatter radiation within the part. B. Decrease x-ray penetration of the part. C. Decrease in the amount of scatter radiation within the part. D. Increase x-ray penetration of the part. - C. Decrease in the amount of scatter radiation within the part How can magnification of the heart be reduced when performing a chest x-ray? A. Use the shortest possible exposure time. B. Use a 72-inch source-image-receptor-distance (SID). C. Use a high kVp and low mAs technique. D. Use a 40-inch source-image-receptor-distance (SID). - B. Use a 72-inch source- image-receptor-distance (SID). How is signal maximized to a digital image receptor? A. Shorter exposure time. B. Higher source to image receptor distance (SID) value. C. Lower milliamperage (mA) setting. D. Longer exposure time - D. Longer exposure time Which calculation is used to determine grid ratio? A. The width of the lead strips divided by the height of the lead strips. B. The height of the lead strips divided by the width of the lead strips. C. The width of the interspace material divided by the height of the lead strips. D. Height of the lead strips divided by the width of the interspace material - D. Height of the lead strips divided by the width of the interspace material Which step will reduce digital image noise, assuming no other changes? A. Image magnification. B. Longer exposure time. C. Small pixel size. D. Decreased kilovolts peak (kVp). - B. Longer exposure time. Why should computed radiography (CR) image receptors (IR) be erased if they haven't been used? A. Eliminate phantom artifacts. B. Prevent a Moire effect. C. Remove fog from background radiation. D. Ensure dropout artifacts do not occur. - C. Remove fog from background radiation. How often should lead aprons be evaluated to determine if cracks or holes are present? A. Every 3 months. B. Monthly. C. Every 6 months. D. Annually. - D. Annually. What do limiting spatial resolution (LSR) and modulation transfer function (MTF) have in common? A. They are both indicators of exposure for digital receptors. B. They measure how efficiently an image is moved to the picture archiving and communication system (PACS). C. They both measure spatial resolution in digital imaging. D. They both affect brightness of the digital image. - C. They both measure spatial resolution in digital imaging. Which system can store images? A. PACS B. RIS C. DICOM D. HIS - A. PACS Which action can improve recorded detail? A. Increase the object-image receptor-distance (OID). B. Use the largest focal spot. C. Select a larger kilovolts peak (kVp). D. Increase the source-image receptor-distance (SID). - D. Increase the source- image receptor-distance (SID). Prior to performing a posteroanterior (PA) chest projection with automatic exposure control (AEC), the radiographer discovers that the patient has had a right total pneumonectomy. Which technical consideration should be considered? A. Selecting only the detector on the right side. B. Selecting only the detector on the left side. C. Selecting the center detector. D. Selecting both outer detectors. - B. Selecting only the detector on the left side. Why should a radiographer routinely use a small focal spot when imaging extremities? A. Increase the life of the x-ray tube. B. Decrease in patient dose. C. Increase in spatial resolution. D. Decrease in contrast. - C. Increase in spatial resolution Which technique produces a 2 milliroentgens (mR) exposure to an image receptor plate if 70 kilovolts peak (kVp) at 25 milliampere-seconds (mAs) produces 1.6 mR? A. 70 kVp at 27.5 mAs. B. 70 kVp at 50 mAs. C. 70 kVp at 35 mAs. D. 70 kVp at 31.25 mAs. - D. 70 kVp at 31.25 mAs. Which x-ray beam characteristic is reduced by adding aluminum filtration? A. Energy of the x-ray beam. B. Half-value layer. C. Quantity of x-rays. D. X-ray beam quality. - C. Quantity of x-rays How does an increase in noise affect the quality of a digital image? A. Density is increased. B. Contrast is increased. C. Density is decreased. D. Contrast is decreased - D. Contrast is decreased Which digital communication network is used to store patient billing information? A. RIS B. PACS C. HR D. HIS - D. HIS Which standard governs communication between the system that contains the patient's full medical information and the system that has radiology-specific data? A. HL-7 B. DICOM C. PACS D. HIS - A. HL-7 A radiographer is performing a forearm exam on a patient with advanced Parkinson's Disease. Which Technical factor adjustments should be used? A. Decrease the milliampere-seconds (mAs) from normal to compensate for decreased bone density. B. Decrease the exposure time to reduce risk of patient motion. C. Increase the kilovolts peak (kVp) from normal to compensate for increased bone density. D. Increase the mAs from normal to compensate for increased tissue attenuation. - B. Decrease the exposure time to reduce risk of patient motion. Which part of the x-ray circuit is controlled by adjusting the milliamperage (mA) setting on the operating console for the purpose of producing the heat necessary for thermionic emission? A. Timer circuit. B. Primary circuit. C. Secondary circuit. D. Filament circuit. - D. Filament circuit. Which digital post-processing results in a black background surrounding the original collimated edges? A. Subtraction. B. Collimation. C. Shuttering. D. Beam restriction. - C. Shuttering. Which statement is true regarding exposure indicator and the evaluation of digital images? A. Radiographers do not need to review the exposure indicator during image evaluation. B. If the exposure indicator falls within the manufacturer's acceptable range, image contrast and brightness do not need to be reviewed. C. Exposure indicator is reviewed only when image contrast or brightness is suboptimal. D. Exposure indicator must be reviewed with every image and must fall within the manufacturer's acceptable range - D. Exposure indicator must be reviewed with every image and must fall within the manufacturer's acceptable range X-ray machines are designed to operate at a specific and continuous supply voltage. Which part of the imaging system is responsible for keeping incoming voltage adjusted to the proper value? A. Milliampere (mA) meter. B. Line compensator. C. Autotransformer. D. Kilovolts peak (kVp) meter. - B. Line compensator. How does the Density log Exposure (D log E) curve appear for a digital imaging receptor (IR)? A. A steep slope. B. An S curve. C. A shallow slope. D. A straight line at a 45 degree angle. - D. A straight line at a 45 degree angle. Which change should be made when performing an abdomen radiograph on a patient with ascites? A. Raise exposure factors. B. Increase source to image receptor distance (SID). C. Use an abdominal compression device. D. Choose a lower millampere (mA) station. - A. Raise exposure factors. Which Identifying information is important to include on each digital Image? (Select Three that apply) A. Ordering Physician B. Clinical Diagnosis C. Health Care Facility D. Patient's DOB E. Patient's Name - C. Health Care Facility D. Patient's DOB E. Patient's Name Where is edge enhancement post processing most helpful in digital radiography? A. Abdominal soft tissue studies. B. High contrast situations. C. Spinal examinations. D. Low contrast situations. - D. Low contrast situations. What is the term for the adjustment of image brightness, regardless of exposure received? A. Rescaling. B. Detective quantum efficiency (DQE). C. Dose area product (DAP). D. Automatic brightness control (ABC). - A. Rescaling. What is the most likely reason for the increase in quantum noise on a computed radiography (CR) image? A. Higher than required kVp B. Lower than required kVp C. Higher than required mAs D. Lower than required mAs - D. Lower than required mAs What is the result if pixel bit depth is decreased? A. Spatial resolution is increased. B. Brightness is increased. C. Contrast resolution is decreased. D. Image noise is decreased. - C. Contrast resolution is decreased. What is the longest field size dimension allowable for 10 inches by 12 inches collimation at a 40 inch source to image distance (SID)? A.11.4 inches. B. 10.6 inches. C. 12.8 inches. D. 13.2 inches. - C. 12.8 inches. Who judges radiographic images for quality? (Select the four that apply.) A. Quality control technologists. B. Lawyers. C. Radiographers. D. Radiologists. E. Ordering physicians. - A. Quality control technologists. C. Radiographers. D. Radiologists. E. Ordering physicians. Picture archiving and communication system (PACS) networks are capable of performing which functions? (Select the two that apply.) A. Tracking radiology scheduling information. B. Processing laboratory reports. C. Tracking billing information. D. Transmitting diagnostic images to remote work stations. E. Downloading images from different imaging modalities. - D. Transmitting diagnostic images to remote work stations. E. Downloading images from different imaging modalities. On which system does hospital staff input new orders for radiologic examinations? A. Radiology information system. B. Picture archiving and communication system. C. Digital imaging and communications system. D. Hospital information system. - D. Hospital information system. Which pathologic condition requires a reduction in exposure factors to produce an acceptable image? A. Congestive heart failure (CHF). B. Emphysema. C. Late stage Paget's