CASAL 1
When are patients eligable for medicare? ANSWER- 65 or those with permanent
diabilites
medicaid for patients with ANSWER- low incomes
MCO insurance ANSWER- managed care organizer: prevention and health promotion
PPO ANSWER- preferred provider organizations
EPO insurance ANSWER- exclusive provider orgnaizatoin (no out o fnetwork coverage)
long term care insurance ANSWER- used a s supplement: for what medicare doesn't
cover
emphasizes health promotion; office or clinic visits, work centered screenings, health
centers ANSWER- primary health care
diagnosis and treatment of ill ness and injury (i.e. ER, diagnostic center, emergent care)
ANSWER- secondary health care
acute crae, high specialty care; oncology cents, burn centes, intensive care ANSWER-
teritary health care
immedicate follow up care, promotes self care, home healht, rehab ceneters, SNF
ANSWER- restorative health care
long term or chronic health care: end of life care, palliative care, hospice, adult day
ccare, assisted ilving ANSWER- continuing health care
who do you refer to when a patient is going home and is no longer able to perfeorm
ADL's. helps get medical equiptment into the home ANSWER- social worker
CNA's are considered ANSWER- AP- assistive personell
support of clien'ts health, wellness, safety, and personal rights, including privacy
ANSWER- advocacy
willingness to respect obligations and follwo through on promises ANSWER-
respnsibilites
abilty to anser for one's own actoins ANSWER- accountability
,protection of privacy without dimishinga cces to high quality care ANSWER-
confidentiality
the right to make one's own personal decisoins, even when the decisions may not be in
the person's best intereste ANSWER- autonomy
action that promotes good for others, without any self interest ANSWER- beneficence
fufillment of promises ANSWER- fidelity
fairness in care delivery and use of resources ANSWER- justice
a commitment to do no harm ANSWER- nonmaleficence
a commitment to tell the truth ANSWER- veracity
the conduct of one persona makes another person fearful adn apprehensive (i.e. NG
tube threat for a client who refuses to eat) ANSWER- assault
intentional and wrongful physical contact: infolves injury or offensive contact ANSWER-
battery
a person is confined or restrained against his will ANSWER- false imprisonment
providers responsibility for informed consent ANSWER- purpose of procedure,
description, potential harm, pain, discomfort, options for other treatments, option to
refuse
clients responsbitiy for informed consent ANSWER- give it voluntairy, be competnet,
legal age to give consent,
nurses responsibiites for informed consent ANSWER- witness the informed conset,
ensure the client undersnants, notify the provider if the client has more quetisons,
(provider is responsible for giving clarification), document quesiotns, reinforcmetn of
teahcing, and use of an interpreter
advanced directives: when to ask? ANSWER- upon admission
AND- ANSWER- allow natural death
who's job to inform all HC personalle about the client's advance directive? ANSWER-
nurse
document what data as direct quotes, within quotaion marks or summarize ANSWER-
subjective
,document client's behaviro without judements, or assumptions ANSWER- objective data
type of documetation that trends vitals signs, blood glucose levels, pain levels and other
assessments ANSWER- flow charts
type of doucmentation for "story like" manner ANSWER- narrative documentation
documentation that uses a standardized form to identify norms and allows selective
documentation of deveiations from those norms ANSWER- charting by exception
documentation
type of documentation that is organized by problem or diagnosis, consist of a database,
problem list, care plan, progeress notes. I.E. SOAP, PIE< DAR ANSWER- problem-
orientated medical records
TO- needs physician to sign in person within ANSWER- 24 hours
should an incident report be reported in a client's medical file ANSWER- NO
SOAP ANSWER- subjective, objective, assessment, plan
PIE ANSWER- problem, intervention, evaluation
DAR ANSWER- data, action, response
nurses CANNOT delegate these to PNs or APs ANSWER- nursing porcess, client
education or tasks that require nursing judgment
give specific info when delegating example ANSWER- tell them to assist with shower at
0900 INSTEAD of assist mr martin with morning hygiene
discharge planning starts on ANSWER- admission
one of the first things you should do when admitting a patien ANSWER- introduce them
to thier roommate
family history focus ANSWER- HTN, cancer, heart disease, diabetes
AMA ANSWER- against medical advice
documentation of discharge ANSWER- date and time, how they are leaving, where they
are going, summary of condition, followup, disposistion of valubles, medications etc
discharge instructions ANSWER- written instrucios, diet, step by step instruction for
home care, precautions, signs and symptoms of what to report, names and numbers of
providers and community sercies to contact, plans for follwo up and therapies
, the absence of illness-producing microorganizims ANSWER- asepsis
alwasy check if the patient has a ___________ allergy before aseptic technique
ANSWER- latex
how much alcohol gel to use? ANSWER- 3-5 ml
have visitors sit _______ feet away from a patient with a cough ANSWER- 3
any object below the ________ or above the ______ is contaminated ANSWER- waist,
chest
place the items to be used _____ furthest away from the sterile field ANSWER- last
to add item to sterile field, drop it ____ inches avove the sterile field ANSWER- 6 inches
hold sterile bottle with _____ in the palm ANSWER- label
which hand to don first? ANSWER- dominant
allows the body to make antibodies in response to a forign organism (antigen)
ANSWER- specific adaptive immunity
difference b/w droplet and airborn (similarities?) ANSWER- both for coughing and
sneezing (droplet for talking too)
stage when the bactera is mutiplying, onset of symptoms ANSWER- prodromal stage
general feeling of discomfort, illness or uneasiness ANSWER- malaise
first stage of the inflammatory resopnose ANSWER- local infection, redness, warmth,
edema, pain or tenderness, oss of use of the affected site
2nd stage of injury ANSWER- microorganisms are killed, fluid containing dead tissue
cells and WBC's accumulate, exudate
3rd stage of injury; ANSWER- tissue replaced by scar tissue
lab values of infections ANSWER- WBC > 10,000 and ESR (erythrocyte sedimentation
rate) over 20 mm/hr; presence of microorganisms on cultrure
airborre precautions for what kind of infections? examples? ANSWER- droplet-
measles, varicella, pulmonary, TB
When are patients eligable for medicare? ANSWER- 65 or those with permanent
diabilites
medicaid for patients with ANSWER- low incomes
MCO insurance ANSWER- managed care organizer: prevention and health promotion
PPO ANSWER- preferred provider organizations
EPO insurance ANSWER- exclusive provider orgnaizatoin (no out o fnetwork coverage)
long term care insurance ANSWER- used a s supplement: for what medicare doesn't
cover
emphasizes health promotion; office or clinic visits, work centered screenings, health
centers ANSWER- primary health care
diagnosis and treatment of ill ness and injury (i.e. ER, diagnostic center, emergent care)
ANSWER- secondary health care
acute crae, high specialty care; oncology cents, burn centes, intensive care ANSWER-
teritary health care
immedicate follow up care, promotes self care, home healht, rehab ceneters, SNF
ANSWER- restorative health care
long term or chronic health care: end of life care, palliative care, hospice, adult day
ccare, assisted ilving ANSWER- continuing health care
who do you refer to when a patient is going home and is no longer able to perfeorm
ADL's. helps get medical equiptment into the home ANSWER- social worker
CNA's are considered ANSWER- AP- assistive personell
support of clien'ts health, wellness, safety, and personal rights, including privacy
ANSWER- advocacy
willingness to respect obligations and follwo through on promises ANSWER-
respnsibilites
abilty to anser for one's own actoins ANSWER- accountability
,protection of privacy without dimishinga cces to high quality care ANSWER-
confidentiality
the right to make one's own personal decisoins, even when the decisions may not be in
the person's best intereste ANSWER- autonomy
action that promotes good for others, without any self interest ANSWER- beneficence
fufillment of promises ANSWER- fidelity
fairness in care delivery and use of resources ANSWER- justice
a commitment to do no harm ANSWER- nonmaleficence
a commitment to tell the truth ANSWER- veracity
the conduct of one persona makes another person fearful adn apprehensive (i.e. NG
tube threat for a client who refuses to eat) ANSWER- assault
intentional and wrongful physical contact: infolves injury or offensive contact ANSWER-
battery
a person is confined or restrained against his will ANSWER- false imprisonment
providers responsibility for informed consent ANSWER- purpose of procedure,
description, potential harm, pain, discomfort, options for other treatments, option to
refuse
clients responsbitiy for informed consent ANSWER- give it voluntairy, be competnet,
legal age to give consent,
nurses responsibiites for informed consent ANSWER- witness the informed conset,
ensure the client undersnants, notify the provider if the client has more quetisons,
(provider is responsible for giving clarification), document quesiotns, reinforcmetn of
teahcing, and use of an interpreter
advanced directives: when to ask? ANSWER- upon admission
AND- ANSWER- allow natural death
who's job to inform all HC personalle about the client's advance directive? ANSWER-
nurse
document what data as direct quotes, within quotaion marks or summarize ANSWER-
subjective
,document client's behaviro without judements, or assumptions ANSWER- objective data
type of documetation that trends vitals signs, blood glucose levels, pain levels and other
assessments ANSWER- flow charts
type of doucmentation for "story like" manner ANSWER- narrative documentation
documentation that uses a standardized form to identify norms and allows selective
documentation of deveiations from those norms ANSWER- charting by exception
documentation
type of documentation that is organized by problem or diagnosis, consist of a database,
problem list, care plan, progeress notes. I.E. SOAP, PIE< DAR ANSWER- problem-
orientated medical records
TO- needs physician to sign in person within ANSWER- 24 hours
should an incident report be reported in a client's medical file ANSWER- NO
SOAP ANSWER- subjective, objective, assessment, plan
PIE ANSWER- problem, intervention, evaluation
DAR ANSWER- data, action, response
nurses CANNOT delegate these to PNs or APs ANSWER- nursing porcess, client
education or tasks that require nursing judgment
give specific info when delegating example ANSWER- tell them to assist with shower at
0900 INSTEAD of assist mr martin with morning hygiene
discharge planning starts on ANSWER- admission
one of the first things you should do when admitting a patien ANSWER- introduce them
to thier roommate
family history focus ANSWER- HTN, cancer, heart disease, diabetes
AMA ANSWER- against medical advice
documentation of discharge ANSWER- date and time, how they are leaving, where they
are going, summary of condition, followup, disposistion of valubles, medications etc
discharge instructions ANSWER- written instrucios, diet, step by step instruction for
home care, precautions, signs and symptoms of what to report, names and numbers of
providers and community sercies to contact, plans for follwo up and therapies
, the absence of illness-producing microorganizims ANSWER- asepsis
alwasy check if the patient has a ___________ allergy before aseptic technique
ANSWER- latex
how much alcohol gel to use? ANSWER- 3-5 ml
have visitors sit _______ feet away from a patient with a cough ANSWER- 3
any object below the ________ or above the ______ is contaminated ANSWER- waist,
chest
place the items to be used _____ furthest away from the sterile field ANSWER- last
to add item to sterile field, drop it ____ inches avove the sterile field ANSWER- 6 inches
hold sterile bottle with _____ in the palm ANSWER- label
which hand to don first? ANSWER- dominant
allows the body to make antibodies in response to a forign organism (antigen)
ANSWER- specific adaptive immunity
difference b/w droplet and airborn (similarities?) ANSWER- both for coughing and
sneezing (droplet for talking too)
stage when the bactera is mutiplying, onset of symptoms ANSWER- prodromal stage
general feeling of discomfort, illness or uneasiness ANSWER- malaise
first stage of the inflammatory resopnose ANSWER- local infection, redness, warmth,
edema, pain or tenderness, oss of use of the affected site
2nd stage of injury ANSWER- microorganisms are killed, fluid containing dead tissue
cells and WBC's accumulate, exudate
3rd stage of injury; ANSWER- tissue replaced by scar tissue
lab values of infections ANSWER- WBC > 10,000 and ESR (erythrocyte sedimentation
rate) over 20 mm/hr; presence of microorganisms on cultrure
airborre precautions for what kind of infections? examples? ANSWER- droplet-
measles, varicella, pulmonary, TB
