TMC Practice Exam With Correct Answers

A 48 year-old female is admitted to the ED with diaphoresis, jugular venous distension, and 3+ pitting edema in the ankles. These findings are consistent with A. liver failure. B. pulmonary embolism. C. heart failure. D. electrolyte imbalances -Answer Heart failure A patient is admitted to the ED following a motor vehicle accident. On physical exam, the respiratory therapist discovers that breath sounds are absent in the left chest with a hyperresonant percussion note. The trachea is shifted to the right. The patient's heart rate is 45/min, respiratory rate is 30/min, and blood pressure is 60/40 mm Hg. What action should the therapist recommend first? A. Call for a STAT chest x-ray. B. Insert a chest tube into the left chest. C. Needle aspirate the 2nd left intercostal space. D. Activate the medical emergency team to intubate the patient. -Answer Needle aspirate the 2nd left intercostal space. All of the following strategies are likely to decrease the likelihood of damage to the tracheal mucosa EXCEPT A. maintaining cuff pressures between 20 and 25 mm Hg. B. using the minimal leak technique for inflation. C. using a low-residual-volume, low-compliance cuff. D. monitoring intracuff pressures. -Answer monitoring intracuff pressures. A 52 year-old post-operative cholecystectomy patient's breath sounds become more coarse upon completion of postural drainage with percussion. The respiratory therapist should recommend A. continuing the therapy until breath sounds improve. B. administering dornase alpha. C. administering albuterol therapy. D. deep breathing and coughing to clear secretions. -Answer deep breathing and coughing to clear secretions. A 65 kg spinal cord injured patient has