HESI 799 RN EXIT EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 2024 LATEST UPDATE.

A client presents in the emergency room with right-sided facial asymmetry. The nurse asks the client to perform a series of movements that require use of the facial muscles. What symptoms suggest that the client has most likely experience a Bell's palsy rather than a stroke? a. Slow onset of facial drooping associated with headache b. Inability to close the affected eye, raise brow, or smile c. A flat nasolabial fold on the right resulting in facial asymmetry. d. Drooling is present on right side of the mouth, but not on the left. Inability to close the affected eye, raise brow, or smile Rationale: Because the motor function controlling eye closure, brow movement and smiling are all carried on the 7th cranial (facial) nerve, the combination of symptoms directly relating to an impairment of all branches of the facial nerve indicate that Bell's palsy has occurred. The nurse is teaching a client how to perform colostomy irrigations. When observing the client's return demonstration, which action indicated that the client understood the teaching? a. Turns to left the side to instill the irrigating solution into the stoma b. Keeps the irrigating container less than 18 inches above the stoma c. Instills 1,200 ml of irrigating solution to stimulate bowel evacuation d. Inserts irrigating catheter deeper into stoma when cramping occurs Keeps the irrigating container less than 18 inches above the stoma Rationale: Keeping the irrigating container less than 18 inches above the stoma permits the solution to flow slowly with little excessive peristalsis does not cause immediate release of stool. Brainpower Read More The nurse should teach the client to observe which precaution while taking dronedarone? a. Stay out of direct sunlight b. Avoid grapefruits and its juice c. Reduce the use of herbal supplements d. Minimize sodium intake. b. Avoid grapefruits and its juice Rationale: Grapefruit increase the effect of dronedarone thereby increasing the possibility of serious side effects. A does not cause a serious effect. C may potentiate lethal arrhythmias and should be avoided. D does not directly affect those taking dronedarone. A client who sustained a head injury following an automobile collision is admitted to the hospital. The nurse include the client's risk for developing increased intracranial pressure (ICP) in the plan of care. Which signs indicate to the nurse that ICP has increased? a. Increased Glasgow coma scale score. b. Nuchal rigidity and papilledema. c. Confusion and papilledema d. Periorbital ecchymosis. Confusion and papilledema Rationale: papilledema is always an indicator of increased ICP, and confusion is usually the first sign of increased ICP. Other options do not necessarily reflect increased ICP. We have an expert-written solution to this problem! The nurse is caring for a client receiving continuous IV fluids through a single lumen central venous catheter (CVC). Based on the CVC care bundle, which action should be completed daily to reduce the risk for infection? a. Remind staff to follow protective environment precautions b. Gently flush the catheter lumen with sterile saline solution c. Cleanse the site and change the transparent dressing. d. Confirm the necessity for continued use of the CVC. Confirm the necessity for continued use of the CVC Rationale: Increase the length of use increase the risk for infection. The CVC care bundle includes the review of the need for continued use of the CVC. Effective hand hygiene and standard precautions should be maintained but protective environment precautions are not needed. B is not needed if continuous IV fluid are infused, ad may introduce contaminants. Use of a transparent dressing allows the site to be visualized for any signs of infection but changing the dressing daily increases the risk for infection. During an annual physical examination, an older woman's fasting blood sugar (FBS) is determined to be 140 mg/dl or 7.8 mmol/L (SI). Which additional finding obtained during a follow-up visit 2 weeks later is most indicative that the client has diabetes mellitus (DM)? a. An increased thirst with frequent urination b. Blood glucose range during past two weeks was 110 to 125 mg/dl or 6.1 to 7.0 mmol/L(SI) c. Two-hour postprandial glucose tolerance test (GTT) is 160 mg/dL or 8.9 mmol/L (SI) d. Repeated fasting blood sugar (FBS) is 132 mg/dl or 7.4 mmol/L (SI). Repeated fasting blood sugar (FBS) is 132 mg/dl or 7.4 mmol/L (SI). A new mother tells the nurse that she is unsure if she will be able to transition into parenthood. What action should the nurse take? a. Provide reassurance to the client that these feeling are normal after delivery b. Discuss delaying the client's discharge from the hospital for another 24 hrs. c. Determine if she can ask for support from family, friend, or the baby's father. d. Explain the differences between postpartum blues and postpartum depression. Determine if she can ask for support from family, friend, or the baby's father Rationale: Emotional support of significant family and friends can help a new mother cope with anxiety about transitioning to parenthood. The nurse should ask the client who is available to support her. A client who was admitted yesterday with severe dehydration is complaining of pain a 24 gauge IV with normal saline is infusing at a rate of 150 ml/hour. Which intervention should the nurse implement first? a. Establish the second IV site b. Asses the IV for blood return c. Stop the normal saline infusion. d. Discontinue the 24-gauge IV Stop the normal saline infusion. Rationale: If the IV has infiltrated or become dislodges, the fluid is infusing into surrounding tissue and not into the vein. Stopping the infusion C is the priority action. Establishing another IV site is necessary for fluid resuscitation after the infiltrated infusion is discontinuing the IV (D) is necessary due to the pain, and a large gauge needle is preferable. An elderly female is admitted because of a change in her level of sensorium. During the evening shift, the client attempts to get out bed and falls, breaking her left hip. Buck's skin traction is applied to the left leg while waiting for surgery. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in this client's plan care? a. Evaluate her response to narcotic analgesia b. Asses the skin under the traction moleskin c. Place a pillow under the involved lower left leg d. Ensure proper alignment of the leg in traction. Ensure proper alignment of the leg in traction. Rationale: A fractured hip results in external rotation and shortening of the affected extremity. With the application of Buck's skin traction proper alignment ensures the transaction S pull is exerted to align the fracture hip with the distal leg, immobilize the fractured bone, and minimize muscle spasms and surrounding tissue injury related to the fracture. A should be implement but improper pull of traction can increase pain and soft tissue damage. B and C should be implemented but the greatest risk is improper alignment of the traction. An Unna boot is applied to a client with a venous stasis ulcer. One week later, when the Unna boot is removed during a follow-up appointment, the nurse observes that the ulcer site contains bright red tissue. What action should the nurse take in response to this finding? a. Immediately apply a pressure dressing b. Document the ongoing wound healing. c. Irrigate the wound with sterile saline d. Obtain a capillary INR, measurement Document the ongoing wound healing Rationale: Appearance of granulation tissue is the best indicator of increased venous retuns and ongoing wound healing At the end of a preoperative teaching session on pain management techniques, a client starts to cry and states, "I just know I can't handle all the pain." What is the priority nursing diagnosis for this client? a. Knowledge deficit b. Anxiety c. Anticipatory grieving d. Pain (acute) anxiety Rationale: The client is demonstrating only anxiety. There is no indication that the client is presenting signs of A, C or D The nurse note a visible prolapse of the umbilical cord after a client experiences spontaneous rupture of the membranes during labor. What intervention should the nurse implement immediately? a. Administer oxygen by face mask at 6L/mint b. Transport the client for a cesarean delivery c. Elevate the presenting part off the cord. d. Place the client to a knee-chest position. Elevate the presenting part off the cord Rationale: The nurse should immediately elevate the presenting part off the cord because when the cord prolapses, the presenting part applies pressure to the cord, especially during each contraction, and reduces perfusion to the fetus. A can be delayed until pressure is removed from the cord. B and D are important but do not have priority. A client who had a right hip replacement 3 day ago is pale has diminished breath sound over the left lower lung fields, a temperature of 100.2 F, and an oxygen saturation rate of 90%. The client is scheduled to be transferred to a skilled nursing facility (SNF) tomorrow for rehabilitative critical pathway. Based on the client's symptoms, what recommendation should the nurse give the healthcare provider? a. Reassess readiness for SNF transfer. b. Obtain specimens for culture analysis c. Confer with family about home care plans d. Arrange physical therapy for strengthening. Reassess readiness for SNF transfer. Rationale: Based on the client's symptoms, reassessing the client's readiness for rehabilitation in the SNF is critical A client who is newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM) receives a prescription for metformin (Glucophage) 500 mg PO twice daily. What information should the nurse include in this client's teaching plan? (Select all that apply.) a. Take an additional dose for signs of hyperglycemia b. Recognize signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia. c. Report persistent polyuria to the healthcare provider. d. Use sliding scale insulin for finger stick glucose elevation. e. Take Glucophage with the morning and evening meal. b. Recognize signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia. c. Report persistent polyuria to the healthcare provider. e. Take Glucophage with the morning and evening meal. Rationale: Glucophage, an antidiabetic agent, acts by inhibiting hepatic glucose production and increases peripheral tissue sensitivity to insulin. The client and family should be taught to recognize signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia. If the dose of Glucophage is inadequate, signs of hypoglycemia, such as polydipsia and polyuria, should be reported to the healthcare provider. Glucophage should be taken with meals to reduce GI upset and increase absorption (E). The nurse is developing an educational program for older clients who are being discharged with new antihypertensive medications. The nurse should ensure that the educational materials include which characteristics? Select all that apply a. Written at a twelfth-grade reading level b. Contains a list with definitions of unfamiliar terms c. Uses common words with few Syllables d. Printed using a 12-point type font e. Uses pictures to help illustrate complex ideas b. Contains a list with definitions of unfamiliar terms c. Uses common words with few Syllables e. Uses pictures to help illustrate complex ideas Rationale: During the aging process older clients often experience sensory or cognitive changes, such as decreased visual or hearing acuity, slower thought or reasoning processes, and shorter attention span. Materials for this age group should include at least of terms, such as a medical terminology that incline may not know and use common words that expresses information clearly and simply. Simple, attractive pictures help hold the learner’s attention. The reading level of material should be at the 4th to 5th grade level. Materials should be printed using large font (18-point or higher), not the standard 12-point font. We have an expert-written solution to this problem! During the admission assessment, the nurse auscultates heart sounds for a client with no history of cardiovascular disease. Where should the nurse listen when assessing the client's point of maximal impulse (PMI) (Click the chosen location. To change, click on a new location) 4-5th intercostal space midclavicular An older male adult resident of long-term care facility is hospitalized for a cardiac catheterization that occurred yesterday. Since the procedure was conducted, the client has become increasingly disoriented. The night shift nurse reports that he attempted to remove the sandbag from his femoral artery multiple times during the night. What actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.) a. Recommend a 24-hour caregiver on discharge to the long-term facility. b. Notify the healthcare provider of the client's change in mental status. c. Include q2 hour's reorientation in the client's plan of care. d. Request immediate evaluation by Rapid Response Team e. Apply soft wrist restraints so that the operative site is protected. b. Notify the healthcare provider of the client's change in mental status. c. Include q2 hour's reorientation in the client's plan of care. Rationale: The client's condition reflects mental changes that could be related to post procedure stress, sundowner's syndrome, or cerebral complications, the nurses should inform the healthcare provider of the client's change in mental status for the client's safety, q2 hour orientation evaluations and reorientation should be included in the plan of care. An older male comes to the clinic with a family member. When the nurse attempts to take the client's health history, he does not respond to questions in a clear manner. What action should the nurse implement first a. Ask the family member to answer the questions. b. Provide a printed health care assessment form c. Assess the surroundings for noise and distractions. d. Defer the health history until the client is less anxious. Assess the surroundings for noise and distractions. The nurse caring for a client with acute renal fluid (ARF) has noted that the client has voided 800 ml of urine in 4 hours. Based on this assessment, what should the nurse anticipate that client will need? a. Treatment for acute uremic symptoms within 24 hours b. Change to a regular diet c. Large amounts of fluid and electrolyte replacement. d. Unrestricted sodium intake Large amounts of fluid and electrolyte replacement. Rationale: This client, whose output is significantly high will need fluids and electrolyte replacement. The diuretic stage of ARF begins when the client has greater than 500 ml of urine in 24 hrs. A is associated with the oliguric and anuric stage of ARF. B and D should not occur until the client's BUN and electrolytes indicate a significant improvement that will allow for such changes. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care for a child with tetanus? a. Open window shades to provide natural light b. Reposition side to side every hour. c. Minimize the number of stimuli in the room. d. Encourage coughing and deep breathing Minimize the amount of stimuli in the room Rationale: Tetanus is an acute, preventable, and often fatal disease caused by an exotoxin produces by the anaerobic spore forming gram positive bacillus clostridium tetani, which affect neuromuscular junction and causes painful muscular rigidity. In planning caring for a child with tetanus, any environmental stimulation should be minimized. Suicide precautions are initiated for a child admitted to the mental health unit following an intentional narcotic overdose. After a visitor leaves, the nurse finds a package of cigarettes in the client's room. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement? a. Assign a sitter for constant observation b. Screen future visitors for contraband c. Document suicide monitoring frequently d. Remove cigarettes for the client's room. Remove cigarettes for the client's room Rationale: Safety is the priority, and any items that might cause self-harm, such as cigarettes should be removed immediately to create a safe environment. A family member of a frail elderly adult asks the nurse about eligibility requirements for hospice care. What information should the nurse provide? (Select all that apply.) a. All family must agree about the need for hospice care. b. Hospice services are covered under Medicare Part B. c. A client must be willing to accept palliative care, not curative care. d. The healthcare provider must project that the client has 6 months or less to live. e. All medications except pain treatment will be stopped during hospice care. c. A client must be willing to accept palliative care, not curative care. d. The healthcare provider must project that the client has 6 months or less to live. Rationale: The eligibility criteria for Medicare coverage requires that the client is willing to accept palliative care, not curative care (C). The healthcare provider should provide an expected prognosis of 6 months or less to live (D) which can be extended by the healthcare provider. It is not necessary for all family members to agree with the need for hospice. A client with atrial fibrillation receives a new prescription for dabigatran. What instruction should the nurse include in this client's teaching plan? a. Keep an antidote available in the event of hemorrhage b. Continue obtaining scheduled laboratory bleeding test c. Eliminate spinach and other green vegetable in the diet. d. Avoid use of nonsteroidal ant-inflammatory drugs (NSAID). Avoid use of nonsteroidal ant-inflammatory drugs (NSAID). Rationale: Dabigatran, a directed reversible thrombin inhibitor, is prescribe to reduce the risk of stroke in client with atrial fibrillation. The risk of bleeding and GI event can be significant and the concomitant use of NSAID and other anticoagulants should be avoided.