Psych 120 Purdue Final Exam

What is Psychology? correct answer: The scientific study of behavior and mind. Types of Psychologists correct answer: Clinical, Applied, Research Clinical Psychologist correct answer: Diagnoses and treats psychological problems—such as depression, anxiety, phobias, and schizophrenia. Examples of Clinical Psychologists correct answer: Counseling Psychologists and Psychiatrist Applied Psychologist correct answer: Extend the principles of scientific psychology to practical, everyday problems in the real world. Examples of Applied Psychologists correct answer: School, Industrial/Organizational, Forensic, and Human Factors Psychologists Research Psychologists correct answer: Conduct basic research to discover the principles of behavior and mind. Examples of Research Psychologists correct answer: Behavioral Neuroscientists, Personality, Cognitive, Development, and Social Psychologists Confounding variable correct answer: An uncontrolled variable that changes along with the independent variable. Dependent variable correct answer: The behavior that is measured or observed in an experiment. Independent Variable correct answer: The aspect of the environment that is manipulated in an experiment. It must consist of at least two conditions. Placebo correct answer: An inactive, or inert, substance that resembles an experimental substance. Correlational research correct answer: A statistic that indicates whether two variables vary together in a systematic way. Experimental research correct answer: A technique in which the investigator actively manipulates the environment to observe its effect on behavior. Quasi- experimental research correct answer: A research technique in which the two or more groups that are compared are selected based on predetermined characteristics, rather than random assignment Operational definition correct answer: Define concepts specifically in terms of how those concepts can be measured Mean correct answer: The arithmetic average of a set of scores. Median correct answer: The middle point in an ordered set of scores: half of the scores fall at or below the median score, and half fall at or above the median score. Mode correct answer: The most frequently occurring score in a set of scores. Range correct answer: The difference between the largest and smallest scores in a distribution. Anatomy of a neuron correct answer: have four major structural parts: dendrites, a soma, an axon, and terminal buttons. Dendrites correct answer: The fibers that extend outward from a neuron and receive information from other neurons. Soma correct answer: The cell body of a neuron. Metabolic Center. Axon correct answer: The long tail-like part of a neuron that is the cell's transmitter Terminal Buttons correct answer: The tiny swellings at the end of the axon that contain chemicals important to neural transmission. Synapse correct answer: The small gap between the terminal buttons of a neuron and the dendrite or cell body of another neuron. Resting Potential correct answer: The tiny electrical charge in place between the inside and the outside of the resting neuron. Action potential correct answer: The all-or-none electrical signal that travels down a neuron's axon. Depolarization correct answer: If the message is excitatory, the cell membrane changes—ion channels open—and sodium ions flow into the cell. Occurs in Action Potential. Neurotransmitters correct answer: Chemical messengers that relay information from one neuron to the next. Glutamate correct answer: The most common neurotransmitter in the brain. Acetylcholine correct answer: A neurotransmitter that plays multiple roles in the central and peripheral nervous systems, including the excitation of muscle contractions. Dopamine correct answer: A neurotransmitter that has been linked to reward and pleasure systems in the brain: decreased levels have been linked to Parkinson disease, and increased levels have been linked to schizophrenia. Serotonin correct answer: A neurotransmitter that has been linked to sleep, dreaming, and general arousal and may also be involved in some psychological disorders such as depression and schizophrenia. Gamma-amino-butyric acid (GABA) correct answer: A neurotransmitter that may play a role in the regulation of anxiety: it generally produces inhibitory effects. Endorphins correct answer: Morphine-like chemicals that act as the brain's natural painkillers. Autonomic nervous system correct answer: The collection of nerves that controls the more automatic needs of the body (such as heart rate, digestion, blood pressure): part of the peripheral nervous system. Sympathetic nervous systems correct answer: triggers the release of chemicals, creating a state of readiness (e.g., by increasing heart rate, blood pressure, and breathing rate). Parasympathetic nervous systems correct answer: Calms the body down by slowing heart rate and lowering blood pressure and helps increase the body's supply of stored energy, which may be diminished in response to the emergency situation. Hindbrain correct answer: A primitive part of the brain that sits at the juncture point where the brain and spinal cord merge. Structures in the hindbrain, including the medulla, pons, cerebellum, and reticular formation, act as the basic life support system for the body. Medulla and Pons correct answer: Associated with the control of heart rate, breathing, blood pressure, and reflexes such as vomiting, sneezing, and coughing. Both areas serve as pathways for neural impulses traveling to and from the spinal cord (the word pons means "bridge"). These areas are particularly sensitive to the lethal effects of drugs such as alcohol, barbiturates, and cocaine. (hindbrain) Reticular Formation correct answer: A network of neurons and nerves linked to the control of general arousal, sleep, and consciousness. (hindbrain) Cerebellum correct answer: At the base of the brain that is involved in the coordination of complex motor skills. (hindbrain) Midbrain correct answer: The middle portion of the brain, containing such structures as the tectum, superior colliculus, and inferior colliculus: midbrain structures serve as neural relay stations and may help coordinate reactions to sensory events. Substantia nigra correct answer: that release the neurotransmitter dopamine from their terminal buttons. (midbrain) Tectum correct answer: its component structures, the superior colliculus and inferior colliculus, serve as important relay stations for visual and auditory information and help coordinate reactions to sensory events in the environment (such as moving the head in response to a sudden sound). (midbrain) Forebrain correct answer: The outer portion of the brain, including the cerebral cortex and the structures of the limbic system. Cerebral Cortex correct answer: The outer layer of the brain, considered to be the seat of higher mental processes. (forebrain) Thalamus correct answer: A relay station in the forebrain thought to be an important gathering point for input from the senses. Hypothalamus correct answer: A forebrain structure thought to play a role in the regulation of various motivational activities, including eating, drinking, and sexual behavior. Amygdala correct answer: A small, almond-shaped piece of brain (from the Greek word meaning "almond") that's linked to a number of motivational and emotional behaviors, including fear, aggression, and defensive actions. (forebrain) Hippocampus correct answer: This is (Greek for "seahorse," which it resembles anatomically) is important for the formation of memories, particularly our memory for specific personal events. (forebrain) Corpus Callosum correct answer: The collection of nerve fibers that connects the two cerebral hemispheres and allows information to pass from one side to the other. Left Hemisphere of Cerebral Cortex correct answer: Controls the sensory and motor functions for the right side of the body Right Hemisphere of Cerebral Cortex correct answer: Controls the sensory and motor functions for the left side of the body Frontal Lobe correct answer: One of four anatomical regions of each hemisphere of the cerebral cortex, located on the top front of the brain: it contains the motor cortex and may be involved in higher-level thought processes. Temporal Lobe correct answer: One of four anatomical regions of each hemisphere of the cerebral cortex, located roughly on the sides of the brain: it's involved in certain aspects of speech and language perception. Occipital Lobe correct answer: One of four anatomical regions of each hemisphere of the cerebral cortex, located at the back of the brain: visual processing is controlled there. Parietal Lobe correct answer: One of four anatomical regions of each hemisphere of the cerebral cortex, located roughly on the top middle portion of the brain: it contains the somatosensory cortex, which controls the sense of touch. Zygote Period correct answer: The fertilized human egg, containing 23 chromosomes from the father and 23 chromosomes from the mother. (1-2 weeks) Germinal Period correct answer: The period in prenatal development from conception to implantation of the fertilized egg in the wall of the uterus. (2 weeks after fertilization) Embryonic Period correct answer: The period of prenatal development lasting from implantation to the end of the eighth week and tarts to develop either male or female sexual characteristics (3-8 weeks after conception) Fetal Period correct answer: The period of prenatal development lasting from the ninth week until birth. (9-38 weeks) Teratogens correct answer: Environmental agents—such as disease organisms or drugs—that can potentially damage the developing embryo or fetus. Visual acuity correct answer: The ability to process fine detail in vision. Infants see 20/400 Habituation correct answer: The decline in responsiveness to a stimulus that is repeatedly presented. Sense of Smell (infants) correct answer: Is developed well enough that the newborn quickly learns to recognize the odor of its mother's breast. Taste (infants) correct answer: Reactive to sugar, lemon, and salt. These distinctive reactions are present at birth and are found even before the infant has had a single taste of food. Cognitive Development correct answer: Guided by two adaptive psychological processes, assimilation and accommodation. Jean Piaget correct answer: Swiss scholar who first convinced psychologists that children think quite differently from adults. Children are not little adults who simply lack knowledge and experience: instead, they view the world in a unique way. Everyone is born with a natural tendency to organize the world meaningfully. Schemata correct answer: Mental models of the world that we use to guide and interpretour experiences. Assimilation correct answer: The process through which we fit—or assimilate—new experiences into existing schemata. Accommodation correct answer: The process through which we change or modify existing schemata to accommodate new experiences. Piaget's Four stages of developmental periods: correct answer: Sensorimotor, Preoperational, Concrete Operational, and Formal Operational. Sensorimotor Period correct answer: Piaget's first stage of cognitive development, lasting from birth to about 2 years of age: schemata revolve around sensory and motor abilities. Preoperational Period correct answer: Piaget's second stage of cognitive development, lasting from ages 2 to about 7: children begin to think symbolically but often lack the ability to perform mental operations such as conservation. Concrete Operational Period correct answer: Piaget's third stage of cognitive development, lasting from ages 7 to 11. Children acquire the capacity to perform a number of mental operations but still lack the ability for abstract reasoning. Formal Operational Period correct answer: Piaget's last stage of cognitive development: thought processes become adult-like, and people gain mastery over abstract thinking. (11 years-adulthood) Change Blindness correct answer: Inability to detect changes in an object or a scene. Decision Making Fallacy correct answer: The thought processes involved in evaluating and choosing from among a set of alternatives: it usually involves some kind of risk. Figure-ground correct answer: Focus on what we believe is the central figure, ignore what we believe is the background. Retinal Disparity correct answer: A binocular cue for depth that is based on location differences between the images in each eye. Convergence correct answer: A binocular cue for depth that is based on the extent to which the two eyes move inward, or converge, when looking at an object. Looming correct answer: As an object gets closer to the observer, its retinal image gets larger. Gestalt Principles of Organization correct answer: The organizing principles of perception proposed by the Gestalt psychologists. These principles include the laws of proximity, similarity, closure, continuation, and common fate. Proximity correct answer: If the elements of a display are close to each other—that is, they lie in close spatial proximity—they tend to be grouped together as part of the same object. Here, for example, you see three groups of dots rather than a single collection. Similarity correct answer: If the elements of a display are close to each other—that is, they lie in close spatial proximity—they tend to be grouped together as part of the same object. Here, for example, you see three groups of dots rather than a single collection. Closure correct answer: Even if a figure has a gap, or a small amount of its border is missing, people still tend to perceive the object as a whole (e.g., a circle). Continuation correct answer: If lines cross or are interrupted, people tend to still see continuously flowing lines. In the following figure you are likely to see a continuous line that is blocked by the box rather than two separate lines. Common Fate correct answer: If things appear to be moving in the same direction, people tend to group them together. Here the moving dots are classified together as a group, with some fate in common. Stages of Sleep correct answer: Awake, Drowsy, Stage 1: N1 Sleep, Stage 2: N2 Sleep, Stage 3: N3 Sleep, REM Sleep Awake correct answer: Fast, Random, Low voltage Drowsy correct answer: Alpha Waves, Relaxed Stage 1: N1 Sleep correct answer: Theta Waves, people often report that they're not really asleep: instead they might claim that their thoughts are simply drifting. Stage 2: N2 Sleep correct answer: the theta activity interrupted occasionally by short bursts of activity called sleep spindles. There are also sudden, sharp, intermittent waveforms called K complexes. You're definitely asleep at this point, although your brain still shows some sensitivity to events in the external world. Loud noises, for example, tend to be reflected immediately in the EEG pattern by triggering a K complex Stage 3: N3 Sleep correct answer: is a progressively deeper state and shows more synchronized slow-wave brain patterns called delta activity: this stage is sometimes called delta or slow-wave sleep. Higher peaks and lower valleys. REM Sleep correct answer: Rapid eye movement sleep, a recurring sleep stage during which vivid dreams commonly occur. Also known as paradoxical sleep: occurs about 90minutes, beginning 1 to 2 hrs after non-REM sleep begins: changes associated include parasympathetic activity, loss of normal voluntary muscle control in tongue & upper pharynx, cerebral blood flow increases. Dominates sleep cycle as night goes on. Sleep Cycle correct answer: Sleep cycles: appx. 90 min Stage 1 NR between wakefulness and sleep Stage 2 NR have fallen asleep but easily arousable Stage 3 and 4 NR deep sleep more difficult to arouse REM cycle back to Stage 2 NR and cycle continues Sleep Disorders correct answer: divided into two main categories: (1) dyssomnias, which are problems connected with the amount, timing, and quality of sleep: and (2) parasomnias, which are abnormal disturbances that occur during sleep. Dyssomnias correct answer: Insomnia, Hypersomnia, and Narcolepsy Insomnia correct answer: A chronic condition marked by difficulties in initiating or maintaining sleep, lasting for a period of at least one month. Hypersomnia correct answer: (or hypersomnolence) A chronic condition marked by excessive sleepiness. Narcolepsy correct answer: A rare sleep disorder characterized by sudden extreme sleepiness. Parasomnias correct answer: Nightmares, Night Terrors, and Sleepwalking Nightmares correct answer: Frightening and anxiety-arousing dreams that occur primarily during the REM stage of sleep. Night Terrors correct answer: Terrifying experiences, which occur mainly in children, in which the sleeper awakens suddenly in an extreme state of panic. Sleepwalking correct answer: The sleeper arises during sleep and wanders about. Orienting Response correct answer: An inborn tendency to notice and respond to novel or surprising events. Hibituation correct answer: The decline in the tendency to respond to an event that has become familiar through repeated exposure. Sensitization correct answer: Increased responsiveness, or sensitivity, to an event that has been repeated. Classical Conditioning correct answer: A set of procedures used to investigate how organisms learn about the signaling properties of events. It involves learning relations between events—conditioned and unconditioned stimuli—that occur outside of one's control. Unconditioned Stimulus (US) correct answer: A stimulus that automatically leads to an observable response prior to any training. Example of Unconditioned Stimulus (US) correct answer: In Pavlov's dog experiment, the dog food is the this because the dog salivated when it was introduced without any training. Unconditioned Response (UR) correct answer: The observable response that is produced automatically, prior to training, on presentation of an unconditioned stimulus. Example of Unconditioned Response (UR) correct answer: In Pavlov's dog experiment, the dog will salivate when dog food is introduced without training. Conditioned Response (CR) correct answer: The acquired response that is produced by the conditioned stimulus in anticipation of the unconditioned stimulus. Example of Conditioned Response (CR) correct answer: In Pavlov's dog experiment, the dog eventually after training, salivates when the bell is rang. Conditioned Stimuli (CS) correct answer: The neutral stimulus that is paired with the unconditioned stimulus during classical conditioning. Example of Conditioned Stimuli (CS) correct answer: In Pavlov's dog experiment, the bell is rang every time before dog food is introduced, and after training the dog salivates over the ringing of the bell. Stimulus Generalization correct answer: Responding to a new stimulus in a way similar to the response produced by an established conditioned stimulus. Extinction correct answer: Presenting a conditioned stimulus repeatedly, after conditioning, without the unconditioned stimulus, resulting in a loss in responding. Spontaneous Recovery correct answer: The recovery of an extinguished conditioned response after a period of non-exposure to the conditioned stimulus. Taste Aversion correct answer: Are easy to acquire. They can occur after a single pairing of a novel food and illness. It is extremely adaptive for people and mongooses to acquire taste aversions to potentially dangerous foods—it is in their interest to avoid those events that signal something potentially harmful. Operant Conditioning correct answer: A procedure for studying how organisms learn about the consequences of their own voluntary actions (also called instrumental conditioning). Reinforcement correct answer: Response consequences that increase the likelihood of responding in a similar way again. Positive Reinforcement correct answer: An event that, when presented after a response, increases the likelihood of that response. Positive Reinforcement Example correct answer: Five-year-old Ajay helps his mom do the dishes. She takes him to the store and lets him pick out any candy bar he wants. Letting Ajay pick out a candy bar increases the likelihood that he'll help with the dishes again. Negative Reinforcement correct answer: An event that, when removed after a response, increases the likelihood of that response occurring again. Negative Reinforcement Example correct answer: Five-year-old Ajay has been such a good helper all week that his mom tells him that next week he doesn'thave to do any of his scheduled chores. Relieving Ajay of his chores increases the likelihood that he'll be a good helper. Punishment correct answer: Consequences that decrease the likelihood of responding in a similar way again. Positive Punishment correct answer: An event that, when presented after a response, lowers the likelihood of that response occurring again. Positive Punishment Example correct answer: Five-year-old Ajay runs nearly into the street: his mother pulls him back from the curb and gives him a brief tongue-lashing. This decreases the likelihood that Ajay will run into the street. Negative Punishment correct answer: An event that, when removed after a response, lowers the likelihood of that response occurring again. Negative Punishment Example correct answer: Five-year-old Ajay keeps teasing his 3-year-old sister at the dinner table. His mom sends him to bed without his favorite dessert. Withholding the dessert decreases the likelihood that Ajay will tease his sister at the dinner table. Schedule of Reinforcement correct answer: A rule that is used to determine when particular responses will be reinforced. Fixed-Ratio correct answer: A schedule in which the number of responses required for reinforcement is fixed and does not change. Example of Fixed-Ratio correct answer: Fruit pickers are paid a certain amount (reinforcement) based on the amount they pick (behavior), which encourages them to pick faster in order to make more money. Fixed-Interval correct answer: A schedule in which the reinforcement is delivered for the first response that occurs following a fixed interval of time. Example of Fixed-Interval correct answer: This type of schedule exists in payment systems when someone is paid hourly: no matter how much work that person does in one hour (behavior), they will be paid the same amount (reinforcement). Variable-Ratio correct answer: A schedule in which a certain number of responses are required for reinforcement, but the number of required responses typically changes. Example of Variable-Ratio correct answer: In humans, this type of schedule is used by casinos to attract gamblers: a slot machine pays out an average win ratio—say five to one—but does not guarantee that every fifth bet (behavior) will be rewarded (reinforcement) with a win. Variable-Interval correct answer: A schedule in which the allotted time before a response will yield reinforcement varies from trial to trial. Example of Variable-Interval correct answer: People who like to fish experience this type of reinforcement schedule: on average, in the same location, you are likely to catch about the same number of fish in a given time period. However, you do not know exactly when those catches will occur (reinforcement) within the time period spent fishing (behavior). Radical behaviorism correct answer: A brand of behaviorism that emphasizes the influence of the environment on overt behavior, rejects the use of internal events to explain behavior, and views thoughts and feelings as behaviors that themselves need to be explained. Encoding correct answer: The processes that determine and control how memories are formed. Retroactive Interference correct answer: A process in which the formation of new memories hurts the recovery of old memories. Storage correct answer: The processes that determine and control how memories are stored and kept over time. Sensory Memory correct answer: An exact replica of an environmental message, which usually lasts for a second or less. Short-term memory correct answer: A limited-capacity system that we use to hold information after it has been analyzed for periods lasting less than a minute or two. Short-term memory capacity correct answer: We can only remember a small amount of information over the short term. Research has shown that short-term memory span—which is defined as the number of items a person can recall in the exact order of presentation on half of the tested memory trials—is typically about seven, plus or minus two items. Long-term memory correct answer: The system used to maintain information for extended periods of time. Flashbulb memory correct answer: Rich memory records of the circumstances surrounding emotionally significant and surprising events. Episodic Memories correct answer: A memory for a particular event, or episode, that happened to you personally, such as remembering what you ate for breakfast this morning or where you went on vacation last year. Primary Effect correct answer: The better memory of items near the beginning of a memorized list. Recency Effect correct answer: The better memory of items near the end of a memorized list. Amnesia correct answer: Forgetting that is caused by physical problems in the brain, such as those induced by injury or disease. Anterograde Amnesia correct answer: Memory loss for events that happen after the point of physical injury. Retrograde Amnesia correct answer: Memory loss for events that happened prior to the point of brain injury. Functional Fixedness correct answer: The tendency to see objects, and their functions, in certain fixed and typical ways. People become fixed in their views about the functions of objects and thereby fail to identify and define all of the available problem information correctly. Representative Heuristic correct answer: The tendency to make decisions based on an alternative's similarity, or representativeness, in relation to an ideal. For example, people decide whether a sequence is random based on how irregular the sequence looks. Infant Communication correct answer: Consists of Phonology, Syntax, and Semantics Phonology correct answer: Rules governing how sounds should be combined to make words in a language. Syntax correct answer: Rules governing how words should be combined to form sentences. Semantics correct answer: The rules used in language to communicate meaning. Gardner's Theory of Intelligence correct answer: that people possess a set of separate and independent "intelligences" ranging from musical to linguistic to interpersonal ability. Cattell's Theory of Intelligence correct answer: contains two distinct components, fluid intelligence and crystallized intelligence Fluid Intelligence correct answer: The natural ability to solve problems, reason, and remember: fluid intelligence is thought to be relatively uninfluenced by experience. (Cattell's) Crystallized Intelligence correct answer: The knowledge and abilities acquired as a result of experience (as from schooling and cultural influences). (Cattell's) Standardized Test's Ability to Predict Future Behavior correct answer: They are great at predicting the behavior that it's designed to measure (like academic performance) but nothing measures true intelligence Intelligence Quotient correct answer: defined originally as the ratio of mental age to chronological age multiplied by 100 Intrinsic Motivation correct answer: Goal-directed behavior that seems to be entirely self-motivated. Incentives correct answer: External factors in the environment that exert pulling effects on our actions. Drives correct answer: A psychological state that arises in response to an internal physiological need, such as hunger or thirst. Instincts correct answer: Unlearned characteristic patterns of responding that are controlled by specific triggering stimuli in the world. Physiological phases of sexual arousal correct answer: Excitement, Plateau, Orgasmic, Resolution Excitement Phase correct answer: The first component of the human sexual response cycle, it's characterized by changes in muscle tension, increased heart rate and blood pressure, and a rushing of blood into the genital organs. Plateau Phase correct answer: The second stage in the human sexual response cycle. Arousal continues to increase, although at a slower rate, toward a preorgasm maximum point. Orgasmic Phase correct answer: The third stage in the human sexual response cycle. It's characterized by rhythmic contractions in the sex organs: in men, ejaculation occurs. There is also the subjective experience of pleasure, which appears to be similar for men and women. Resolution Phase correct answer: The fourth and final stage in the human sexual response cycle. Arousal returns to normal levels. For men, there is a refractory period during which further stimulation fails to produce visible signs of arousal. General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS) correct answer: Stress-response pattern proposed by Hans Selye that consists of three stages: alarm, resistance, and exhaustion Alarm Phase correct answer: The threat is perceived and the nervous system is triggered for survival. Fight or Flight. Resistance Phase correct answer: Body tries to recover and revert back to the state of physiological calm or homeostasis, by resisting the alarm. Body adjusts to continuing threat. Exhaustion Phase correct answer: Final stage in which one or more target organs show signs of dysfunction. Energy reserves become so depleted that it starts to give up. Maslow's Hierarchy correct answer: that human needs are prioritized in a hierarchy. Physiological-Safety-Belongingness and Love-Esteem-Self-Actualization Facial Feedback Hypothesis correct answer: The proposal that muscles in the face deliver signals to the brain that are then interpreted, depending on the pattern, as a subjective emotional state. Evolutionary view of mate selection correct answer: Women seek men with high social and job status that can support offspring and Men seek women who are young and fertile that can bear children. Homeostasis correct answer: The process through which the body maintains a steady state, such as a constant internal temperature or an adequate amount of fluids. Eating Disorders correct answer: anorexia nervosa, bulimia nervosa Anorexia Nervosa correct answer: An eating disorder diagnosed when an otherwise healthy person refuses to maintain a normal weight level because of an intense fear of being overweight. Bulimia Nervosa correct answer: An eating disorder in which the principal symptom is binge eating (consuming large quantities of food) followed by purging, in which the person voluntarily vomits or uses laxatives to prevent weight gain. Self-report Personality Tests correct answer: Personality tests in which people answer groups of questions about how they typically think, act, and feel, their responses, or self-reports, are then compared to average responses compiled from large groups of prior test takers. The Big Five correct answer: The five dimensions of personality—extroversion, agreeableness, conscientiousness, neuroticism, and openness—that have been isolated through the application of factor analysis. Extraversion correct answer: Talkative, sociable, fun-loving, affectionate Agreeableness correct answer: Sympathetic, warm, trusting, cooperative Conscientiousness correct answer: Ethical, dependable, productive, purposeful Neuroticism correct answer: Anxious, insecure, guilt-prone, self-conscious Openness correct answer: Daring, nonconforming, showing unusually broad interests, imaginative Person-Situation Debate correct answer: A controversial debate centering on whether people really do behave consistently across situations. Self-Monitoring correct answer: The degree to which a person monitors a situation closely and changes his or her behavior accordingly, people who are high self-monitors may not behave consistently across situations. Weak v.s. Strong Situation correct answer: Situational strength is said to result in psychological pressure on the individual to engage in and/or refrain from particular behaviors. A consequence of this psychological pressure to act in certain way is the likelihood that despite an individual's personality, they will act in a certain manner. Projective Tests correct answer: A type of personality test in which individuals are asked to interpret unstructured or ambiguous stimuli. Example of Projective Test correct answer: Rorscach (Ink Blot Test) Asch's Conformity Study correct answer: People were asked to participate in a simple perception experiment that required them to make judgments about line length. Two cards were shown, one displaying a standard line of a particular length and the other showing three comparison lines of differing lengths. The participant was required to state aloud which of the three comparison lines was the same length as the standard line. The task was really quite simple—there was no question about the correct answer. The catch was that this was a group experiment, and the other members of the group were really confederates of the experimenter—they were not volunteers but rather were there to put social pressure on the true participant. Latane and Darley correct answer: • Bystander effect • Diffusion of responsibility • Experiment where one student started having a seizure - tried to see if anyone reported it. Saw a diffusion of responsibility as the group grew larger. Bystander Effect correct answer: The reluctance to come to someone's aid when other people are present. This is characterized by diffusion of responsibility, the tendency to believe that others will help. Bystander Intervention Model correct answer: 1. Notice something unusual is happening. 2. Decide help is needed. 3. Decide whether to help. 4. Decide what kind of help to offer. 5. Implement the help. Attribution Errors correct answer: When people seek to interpret someone else's behavior, they tend to overestimate the influence of internal personal factors and underestimate the role of situational factors. Rational-emotive Therapy correct answer: A form of cognitive therapy in which the therapist acts as a kind of cross-examiner, verbally assaulting the client's irrational thought processes. Beck's Cognitive Therapy correct answer: • help patients stop their negative thoughts as they occur and replace them with more objective thoughts. • Eliminating cognitive distortions. • using behavioral interventions and cognitive strategies Gestalt Therapists correct answer: clients actively encouraged to express feelings openly. Integrate pieces of information into meaningful whole or form. Depression correct answer: Treatments: electroconvulsive therapy, antidepressants (affect the availability of neurotransmitters) (Prozac and Cingulotomy) dysthymic disorder correct answer: in which the depressive symptoms tend to be milder and less disruptive but more chronic. Schizophrenia correct answer: A class of disorders characterized by fundamental disturbances in thought processes, emotion, or behavior. Anti-psychotics (Thorazine) Dopamine Antagonist. (Clozapine) Bipolar Disorder correct answer: A type of disorder in which the person experiences disordered mood shifts in two directions—from depression to a manic state. Treated with the common salt lithium carbonate. Generalized Anxiety correct answer: Excessive worrying, or free-floating anxiety, that lasts and cannot be attributed to any single identifiable source. Anti-anxiety drugs (Benzodiazepine) System Desensitization correct answer: A technique that uses counterconditioning and extinction to reduce the fear and anxiety that have become associated with a specific object or event. Aversion Therapy correct answer: A treatment for replacing a positive reaction to a harmful stimulus, such as alcohol, with something negative, such as feeling nauseated. It replaces positive associations with negative ones, such as making a smoker feel bad rather than good after having a cigarette. Humanistic Therapy correct answer: Treatments designed to help clients gain insight into their fundamental self-worth and value as human beings. Hallucinations correct answer: False perceptions that have a compelling sense of reality (Schizophrenia). Somatoform Disorders correct answer: Psychological disorders that focus on the physical body. These disorders can be associated with specific body complaints (such as continuing pain) and/or excessive worry about the possibility of contracting a serious disease. Lazarus's Theory of Stress correct answer: It is one's perception of a stressor that causes stress. To feel stress, it is necessary to • Perceive there's some kind of demand or threat present, and • Conclude that you may not have adequate resources available to deal with that threat Type A Personality correct answer: Personality type that describes people who are competitive, driven, hostile, impatient, and ambitious Coping with Stress correct answer: Efforts to manage or master conditions of threat or demand that tax one's resources. Relaxation (progressive muscle relaxation, autogenic, and meditation) Social Support correct answer: The resources we receive from other people or groups, often in the form of comfort, caring, or help. Holmes and Rahe Social Readjustment Rating Scale correct answer: Interviewed thousands of people who were suffering from health problems and then tried to determine whether certain kinds of events preceded the onset of the health problems.