lOMoARcPSD|28769225
NEW GENERATION HESI PATHOPHYSIOLOGY TEST BANK
WITH CORRECT ANSWERS | REAL EXAMS
1. After talking with the healthcare provider, a male client continues to have questions about
theresults of a prostatic surface antigen (PSA) screening test and asks the nurse how the
PSA levels become elevated. The nurse should explain which pathophysiological
mechanism?
A. As the prostate gland enlarges, its cells contribute more PSA
inthe circulating blood. Correct
B. The PSA levels normally rise and fall, so multiple testings
overtime are necessary.
C. Low PSA levels indicate that the prostate gland is
notfunctioning properly.
D. The PSA blood test is used to determine dosage for
Viagraprescriptions.
PSA is a glycoprotein found in prostatic epithelial cells, and elevations are
usedas a specific tumor markers. Elevations in PSA are related to gland
volume, i.e., benign prostatic hypertrophy, prostatitis, and cancer of the
prostate, indicating (tumor) cell load (A). PSA levels are also used to monitor
response totherapy. (B, C, and D) provide incorrect information.
Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points.
2. A 26-year-old male client with Hodgkin's disease is scheduled to undergo radiation
therapy.The client expresses concern about the effect of radiation on his ability to have
children. What information should the nurse provide?
A. The radiation therapy causes the inability to have an erection.
B. Radiation therapy with chemotherapy causes temporary
infertility.
C. Permanent sterility occurs in male clients who receive
radiation. Correct
D. The client should restrict sexual activity during radiotherapy.
Low sperm count and loss of motility are seen in males with Hodgkin's disease
before any therapy. Radiotherapy often results in permanent aspermia, or
sterility (C). (A, B, and D) are inaccurate.
Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points.
3. The nurse hears short, high-pitched sounds just before the end of inspiration in the right
andleft lower lobes when auscultating a client's lungs. How should this finding be
,recorded?
A. Inspiratory wheezes in both lungs.
B. Crackles in the right and left lower lobes. Correct
C. Abnormal lung sounds in the bases of both lungs.
D. Pleural friction rub in the right and left lower lobes.
, Fine crackles (B) are short, high-pitched sounds heard just before the end of
inspiration that are the result of rapid equalization of pressure when collapsed
alveoli or terminal bronchioles suddenly snap open. Wheezing (A) is a
continuous high-pitched squeaking or musical sound caused by rapid vibration
of bronchial walls that are first evident on expiration and may be audible.
Although (C) describes an adventitious lung sound, this documentation is
vague. (D) is a creaking or grating sound from roughened, inflamed surfaces of
the pleura rubbing together heard during inspiration, expiration, and with no
change during coughing.
Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points.
4.
A client is admitted to the Emergency Department with a tension
pneumothorax. Which assessment should the nurse expect to identify?
A. An absence of lung sounds on the affected side.
B. An inability to auscultate tracheal breath sounds.
C. A deviation of the trachea toward the side opposite the
pneumothorax. Correct
D. A shift of the point of maximal impulse to the left, with bounding
pulses.
Tension pneumothorax is caused by rapid accumulation of air in the pleural
space, causing severely high intrapleural pressure. This results in collapse of
the lung, and the mediastinum shifts toward the unaffected side, which is
subsequently compressed (C). (A, B, and D) are not demonstrated with a
tension pneumothorax.
Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points
5.
A client who is receiving a whole blood transfusion develops chills, fever, and
aheadache 30 minutes after the transfusion is started. The nurse should
recognize these symptoms as characteristic of what reaction?
A. A mild allergic reaction.
B. A febrile transfusion reaction. Correct
C. An anaphylactic transfusion reaction.
D. An acute hemolytic transfusion reaction.
, Symptoms of a febrile reaction (B) include sudden chills, fever, headache,
flushing and muscle pain. An allergic reaction (A) is the response of histamine
release which is characterized by flushing, itching, and urticaria. An
anaphylactic reaction (C) exhibits an exaggerated allergic response that
progresses to shock and possible cardiac arrest. An acute hemolytic reaction
(D) presents with fever and chills, but is hallmarked by the onset of low back
NEW GENERATION HESI PATHOPHYSIOLOGY TEST BANK
WITH CORRECT ANSWERS | REAL EXAMS
1. After talking with the healthcare provider, a male client continues to have questions about
theresults of a prostatic surface antigen (PSA) screening test and asks the nurse how the
PSA levels become elevated. The nurse should explain which pathophysiological
mechanism?
A. As the prostate gland enlarges, its cells contribute more PSA
inthe circulating blood. Correct
B. The PSA levels normally rise and fall, so multiple testings
overtime are necessary.
C. Low PSA levels indicate that the prostate gland is
notfunctioning properly.
D. The PSA blood test is used to determine dosage for
Viagraprescriptions.
PSA is a glycoprotein found in prostatic epithelial cells, and elevations are
usedas a specific tumor markers. Elevations in PSA are related to gland
volume, i.e., benign prostatic hypertrophy, prostatitis, and cancer of the
prostate, indicating (tumor) cell load (A). PSA levels are also used to monitor
response totherapy. (B, C, and D) provide incorrect information.
Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points.
2. A 26-year-old male client with Hodgkin's disease is scheduled to undergo radiation
therapy.The client expresses concern about the effect of radiation on his ability to have
children. What information should the nurse provide?
A. The radiation therapy causes the inability to have an erection.
B. Radiation therapy with chemotherapy causes temporary
infertility.
C. Permanent sterility occurs in male clients who receive
radiation. Correct
D. The client should restrict sexual activity during radiotherapy.
Low sperm count and loss of motility are seen in males with Hodgkin's disease
before any therapy. Radiotherapy often results in permanent aspermia, or
sterility (C). (A, B, and D) are inaccurate.
Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points.
3. The nurse hears short, high-pitched sounds just before the end of inspiration in the right
andleft lower lobes when auscultating a client's lungs. How should this finding be
,recorded?
A. Inspiratory wheezes in both lungs.
B. Crackles in the right and left lower lobes. Correct
C. Abnormal lung sounds in the bases of both lungs.
D. Pleural friction rub in the right and left lower lobes.
, Fine crackles (B) are short, high-pitched sounds heard just before the end of
inspiration that are the result of rapid equalization of pressure when collapsed
alveoli or terminal bronchioles suddenly snap open. Wheezing (A) is a
continuous high-pitched squeaking or musical sound caused by rapid vibration
of bronchial walls that are first evident on expiration and may be audible.
Although (C) describes an adventitious lung sound, this documentation is
vague. (D) is a creaking or grating sound from roughened, inflamed surfaces of
the pleura rubbing together heard during inspiration, expiration, and with no
change during coughing.
Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points.
4.
A client is admitted to the Emergency Department with a tension
pneumothorax. Which assessment should the nurse expect to identify?
A. An absence of lung sounds on the affected side.
B. An inability to auscultate tracheal breath sounds.
C. A deviation of the trachea toward the side opposite the
pneumothorax. Correct
D. A shift of the point of maximal impulse to the left, with bounding
pulses.
Tension pneumothorax is caused by rapid accumulation of air in the pleural
space, causing severely high intrapleural pressure. This results in collapse of
the lung, and the mediastinum shifts toward the unaffected side, which is
subsequently compressed (C). (A, B, and D) are not demonstrated with a
tension pneumothorax.
Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points
5.
A client who is receiving a whole blood transfusion develops chills, fever, and
aheadache 30 minutes after the transfusion is started. The nurse should
recognize these symptoms as characteristic of what reaction?
A. A mild allergic reaction.
B. A febrile transfusion reaction. Correct
C. An anaphylactic transfusion reaction.
D. An acute hemolytic transfusion reaction.
, Symptoms of a febrile reaction (B) include sudden chills, fever, headache,
flushing and muscle pain. An allergic reaction (A) is the response of histamine
release which is characterized by flushing, itching, and urticaria. An
anaphylactic reaction (C) exhibits an exaggerated allergic response that
progresses to shock and possible cardiac arrest. An acute hemolytic reaction
(D) presents with fever and chills, but is hallmarked by the onset of low back
