IAHSS (full study guide) In-class activity

1. Which of the following is NOT one of the classifications of healthcare organizations in Chapter one? A. Propriety or for-profit. B. Not-for-profit. C. Government-supported. D. Individual healthcare. - D. Individual healthcare. 2. Which of the following is NOT a risk issue for healthcare? A. Drugs are used and stored in the facility. B. Mostly female staff. C. High percentage of technical and professional staff. D. Publicly accessible and many doors must remain open. - C. High percentage of technical and professional staff. 3. Which of the following is usually at the top of the organizational chart? A. Board of Directors. B. Department leaders. C. Assistant administrators. D. Vice presidents. - A. Board of Directors 4. Which of the following statements best describes employees? A. Medical staff contracted by the facility. B. All staff directly employed by the facility. C. Volunteers who donate their time. D. Contracted persons. - B. All staff directly employed by the facility. 5. Security uses senior management's endorsement to build what kind of program? A. Strong and effective. B. A program that works in a small part of the facility. C. Generally effective. D. Strong and simple. - A. Strong and effective. 6. How should friendships and inter-personal relationships between security officers and staff members from other departments be treated? A. Discouraged. B. Encouraged. C. Encouraged but monitored. D. Encouraged, but security staff educated about ethics and avoiding favoritism. - D. Encouraged, but security staff educated about ethics and avoiding favoritism. 7. Which of the following allows a department to assess its cost-effectiveness within an organization? A. Crime analysis. B. Risk assessments. C. Bench-marking. D. Evaluation surveys. - C. Bench-marking. 8. What should the most primary overriding concern of any security department be? A. Its image. B. The safety and well-being of anyone in the facility. C. The goals and mission of the entity employing the security services. D. Cost-effectiveness. - B. The safety and well-being of anyone in the facility. 9. Which of the following are skills a security professional should have and use at all times? A. Good observation skills. B. good communication skills. C. Tolerance. D. All of the above. - D. All of the above. 10. Why are vendors potentially a high security risk to a healthcare facility? A. Vendors often have access to sensitive areas yet staff of the healthcare organization may know very little about vendor's background. B. Vendors typically drive large vehicles that can conceal large amounts of stolen property or contraband. C. Competing vendors may clash at a facility. D. Vendors may be bringing in high-demand products that could be targeted for theft. - A. Vendors often have access to sensitive areas yet staff of the healthcare organization may know very little about vendor's background. 11. In the patient- and family-centered care philosophy, who determines which individuals are part of the patient's family? A. Patient's parents or legal guardians. B. Nursing staff. C. Attending physician. D. The patient, provided he or she is developmentally mature and competent to do so. - D. The patient, provided he or she is developmentally mature and competent to do so. 12. Which of the following is not an example of an external costumer? A. Patients. B. Vendors. C. Employees. D. Regulatory agencies. - C. Employees. 13. Which of the following does NOT help the security uniform communicate an appropriate message to the public? A. Clean uniform. B. Wearing the uniform shirt outside of the trousers. C. Well cared for uniform. D. Shined footwear. - B. Wearing the uniform shirt outside of the trousers. 14. Which of the following is NOT an example of undesirable behavior and demeanor in a security officer? A. Bad attitude. B. Dishonesty. C. Impoliteness. D. Confidence. - D. Confidence. 15. What is the relationship between employees and management sometimes called? A. Employee relations. B. Confidentiality. C. Family interaction. D. Tense conversation. - A. Employee relations. 16. Which of the following may union members NOT do during picketing? A. Carry signs. B. Protest management decisions. C. Block entrances to the building. D. Congregate outside the facility. - C. Block entrances to the building. 17. Which of the following is NOT a true statement about customers' perceptions of their experience? A. Interaction is subject to personal interpretation. B. Interaction can only be perceived by words stated. C. Interaction is affected by body language. D. Interaction is affected by all of your actions. - B. Interaction can only be perceived by words stated. 18. Which of the following is NOT one of the three powerful, personal reasons to provide great customer service? A. More job satisfaction. B. Less stress and hassle. C. Trying to impress your supervisor. D. More job success. - C. Trying to impress your supervisor. 19. Which of the following describes the main objective of good customer service? A. To make the customer walk away with a positive feeling. B. To help the customer see that someone tried, even though though the customer,s wants were not met. C. To make the customer think no one cares about the concern raised by the customer. D. To help the customer walk away with a neutral feeling. - A. To make the customer walk away with a positive feeling. 20. Which of the following is the definition of a customer? A. External paying customer. B. Internal customer. C. Non-paying external customer. D. Anyone with whom you interact. - D. Anyone with whom you interact. 21. Which of the following is NOT a common technique to use while providing good customer service. A. Acknowledge the customer's needs. B. Use inappropriate body language. C. Provide alternatives. D. Say thank you. - B. Use inappropriate body language. 22. The Joint Commission requires that risk assessments be conducted how often? A. Every two years. B. Every six months. C. Every year. D. Monthly. - C. Every year. 23. Which of the following is NOT a true statement? A. Team building encourages employee involvement in planning, problem solving, and decision making within the organization. B. Team building promotes a better understanding of decisions. C. Team building rarely contributes to support for ownership of decisions, processes, and changes. D. Active participation on teams can engage employees. - C. Team building rarely contributes to support for ownership of decisions, processes, and changes. 24. Which of the following is NOT an ongoing or functional work team? A. A project team. B. A natural work team. C. A management team. D. A process improvement team. - A. A project team. 25. What is a misdemeanor? A. A crime punishable by imprisonment for more than a year. B. A violation of the municipal code. C. Any offense other than a felony. D. A violation of the state's penal code. - C. Any offense other than a felony. 26. To be successful, teams need which of the following? A. Access to resources. B. Clearly defined boundaries. C. Access to people who know. D. Clearly defined purposes and goal. E. all of the above. - E. all of the above. 27. What is the definition of crowd control? A. Techniques used to manage lawful public assemblies. B. Allowing First Amendment activities. C. Allowing Demonstrations. D. Techniques used to address unlawful public assemblies. - D. Techniques used to address unlawful public assemblies. 28. Which of the following is NOT a stage of team development? A. Forming. B. Ending. C. Norming. D. Storming - B. Ending. 29. Failure of teams can usually be attributed to what? A. No clearly defined purpose or goals. B. Lack of employee buy-in to teams. C. Employees conditioned to value individual achievement. D. Any of the above. - D. Any of the above. 30. Which of the following is NOT an opportunity derived from patrol? A. Getting to know the community. B. Establishing positive relationships and partnerships. C. Improving communications. D. Using the security vehicle to go off site. - D. Using the security vehicle to go off site. 31. Which is the most common patrol approach? A. Inconspicuous. B. Routine. C. Conspicuous. D. Foot. - C. Conspicuous. 32. Which of the following are the three key elements of a good patrol. A. Hearing, documentation and memory. B. Observation, perception and memory. C. Perception, memory and documentation. D. Time, memory and perception. - B. Observation, perception and memory. 33. Which type of patrol covers all areas equally with high visibility? A. Selective. B. Directed. C. Vehicle. D. Routine. - D. Routine. 34. Which one of these is an example of something you should do while patrolling? A. Let employees know you are in the area. B. Get careless. C. Be a hero unnecessarily. D. Get separated from your equipment. - A. Let employees know you are in the area. 35. What patient information can be given to the security officer by a clinician A. Clinicians are never allowed to release any patient information to anyone. B. only patient information of interest to the security officer. C. Only patient information that is critical to the performance of the security officer. D. None of the above. - C. Only patient information that is critical to the performance of the security officer. 36. What should facility employees do when they hear an announcement of a child abduction. A. Leave their offices, go out the closest door, and assemble in the street. B. Go to their assigned areas (doors,stairs, elevators, etc.), look for anyone with any item that could be hiding the child, and stop and question them. C. Call the security office and volunteer to help if needed. D. Stay inside their office and out of the away. - B. Go to their assigned areas (doors,stairs, elevators, etc.), look for anyone with any item that could be hiding the child, and stop and question them. 37. Security officers must interact in a professional manner with which group of people? A. Patients. B. Visitors. C. Employees. D. Physicians. E. All the above. - E. All the above. 38. Which trait or skill is NOT desirable for a security officer to possess? A. Strong communication skills. B. Compassion. C. Ability to speak loudly. D. Ability to express care and understanding. - C. Ability to speak loudly. 39. When an infant abduction is suspected, what should security's first response be? A. Rush to the affected unit and interview the parent. B. Call the National center for Missing and Exploited Children. C. Grab the department's camera and take pictures of everyone who exits the emergency department. D. Immediately go to the property's exits, doors, garages, etc.. Stop each person walking or driving out who has anything a baby could be in. - D. Immediately go to the property's exits, doors, garages, etc.. Stop each person walking or driving out who has anything a baby could be in. 40. In which way is a security officer likely to interact with a patient? A. Picking up or returning patient's valuables. B. Investigating lost or stolen property. C. Helping resolve domestic disputes occurring at the facility. D. All of the above. - D. All of the above. 41. Which is the most common location where missing patients are found. A. Hiding under the bed. B. In the cafeteria or near an entrance. C. In the gift shop. D. Looking for the morgue. - B. In the cafeteria or near an entrance. 42. Which of the following should a security officer NOT do when interacting with a visitor? A. Be aware of the visitor's emotional state. B. Use sarcasim. C. Treat the visitor with respect. D. Show empathy. - B. Use sarcasm. 43. Which accreditation body mandates the provision of a secure healthcare environment? A. The Joint Commission. B. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)" C. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA). D. American Society of Healthcare Engineers. (ASHE). - A. The Joint Commission. 44. Generally, a security officer does what during a robbery? A. Confronts the criminal. B. Observes and reports. C. Enters the area with the police. D. Leaves the area unattended. - B. Observes and reports. 45. Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of a protective vest? A. Relative short life. B. Expense. C. Discomfort and restrictiveness. D. Avoiding or minimizing injury. - D. Avoiding or minimizing injury. 46. Which ofthe following items is NOT security equipment? A. Flashlight. B. Portable radio. C. Handcuffs. D. CPR pocket mask. - D. CPR pocket mask. 47. Which factor can contribute to behavior escalation in a patient? A. Short wait periods. B. Calm atmosphere. C. Food selection. D. Attire. - C. Food selection. 48. Which of the following does NOT apply when an officer has decided to use force for self-defense or to defend another person? A. Must be reasonable. B. Must be prudent. C. Must be able to inflict pain. D. Must be defensible. - C. Must be able to inflict pain. 49. Which of the following is a professional attribute? A. Image. B. Posture. C. Attitude. D. Initiative. E. All of the above. - E. All of the above. 50. The self-disciplined officer does NOT do which of the following? A. Take an interest in the job. B. Look for ways to improve safety. C. Call a routine duty a waste of time. D. Look for ways to improve recommended procedures. - C. Call a routine duty a waste of time. 51. Non-verbal communication accounts for what percentage of communication? A. 57 percent. B. 49 percent. C. 89 percent. D. 94 percent. - D. 94 percent.